Skip to content

CBSE Class 10 Social Science 2025 Question Paper (32/6/1)

questionbuddy.in/cbse/class-10/social-science/pyq/2025-32-6-1

Social ScienceCBSE Class 10 · Board exam 2025 (session 2024-25)

CBSE Class 10 Social Science: 2025 board paper, set 32/6/1

The question paper set in the CBSE Class 10 board exam of 2025, as printed: 37 questions for 80 marks, in sections, with each OR choice shown as an alternative. Try each question first, then open our solution.

Every question here has our step-by-step solution, split into the steps that earn marks. Each one was checked by an independent re-solve from the question paper.

Source: official question paper from cbse.gov.in: https://www.cbse.gov.in/cbsenew/question-paper/2025/X/087_Social_Science.zip (a zip; this paper is the file 32-6-1_Social Science.pdf). Questions are transcribed from that PDF; figures are described in words, so check the official paper for them. Questions printed only for visually impaired candidates are left out (2).

Practise a paper like this, timedMy board paper sets a full paper in this exact format from real board questions, with a timer.Get your written answers markedThe Answer Coach marks a photo of your handwritten answer step by step, like the examiner.

How the paper is set

SectionQuestionsWhat it has
A1-20Multiple Choice Questions; Assertion-Reason at 5 and 11
B21-24Very Short Answer (max 40 words); 24 has internal choice
C25-29Short Answer (max 60 words); 28 has internal choice
D30-33Long Answer (max 120 words); 30-33 each have internal choice
E34-36Case/Source-based with three subparts each
F37Map Skill based: 37(a) History 2 marks, 37(b) Geography 3 marks

Instructions in brief: All questions compulsory; internal choice (OR) given in Q24, Q28, Q30-Q33; separate questions for Visually Impaired candidates replace map/visual questions 37(a) and 37(b).

Section A

Multiple Choice Questions; Assertion-Reason at 5 and 11

  1. Q1 · 1 mark · MCQCompetency-basedMoney and Credit

    Rama is a farmer. She needs loan for agriculture work. Which of the following sources of loan will be beneficial for Rama? Choose the most appropriate option:

    I. Bank
    II. Agricultural Trader
    III. Self-Help Group
    IV. Government

    1. (A)Only I, III and IV are correct.
    2. (B)Only I, II and III are correct.
    3. (C)Only II, III and IV are correct.
    4. (D)Only I, II and IV are correct.
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. Banks, Self-Help Groups and the Government give loans at reasonable interest. Agricultural traders usually charge high interest and exploit farmers, so II is not beneficial. Hence only I, III and IV are correct.

      1 mark

    Answer: Option (A)

    Where the marks are

    • Identifies I, III, IV as beneficial sources (1 mark)

  2. Q2 · 1 mark · MCQDevelopment

    'Per capita income' is criterion for development of which one of the following?

    1. (A)United Nations Development Programme
    2. (B)World Health Organisation
    3. (C)World Trade Organisation
    4. (D)World Bank
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. The World Bank classifies countries as rich or poor mainly by per capita income. UNDP uses the Human Development Index instead. So the answer is World Bank.

      1 mark

    Answer: Option (D) World Bank

    Where the marks are

    • Identifies World Bank (1 mark)

  3. Q3 · 1 mark · MCQGlobalisation and the Indian Economy

    Read the following statements for stimulating the process of globalization and choose the correct options:

    I. Government reduces trade barriers.
    II. Government reduces competition among producers.
    III. Government reduces import and export taxes.
    IV. Government removes restrictions on foreign investment.

    1. (A)Only I, II and III are correct.
    2. (B)Only II, III and IV are correct.
    3. (C)Only I, III and IV are correct.
    4. (D)Only I, II and IV are correct.
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. Globalisation is promoted by reducing trade barriers, cutting import and export taxes and removing limits on foreign investment (liberalisation). Reducing competition among producers is not part of it, as globalisation increases competition. So I, III and IV are correct.

      1 mark

    Answer: Option (C)

    Where the marks are

    • Selects I, III, IV and rejects II (1 mark)

  4. Q4 · 1 mark · MCQSectors of the Indian Economy

    Which of the following provisions have been made under the 'Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act – 2005'?

    1. (A)Government ensures 100 days of employment for all residents.
    2. (B)Government ensures 200 days of employment for all rural residents.
    3. (C)Government provides grains in exchange of work in rural areas.
    4. (D)Government provides unemployment allowance to the beneficiaries in case of failure to provide employment.
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. MGNREGA 2005 guarantees 100 days of employment per year to rural households whose adult members volunteer for unskilled manual work. If work is not provided, the government must pay an unemployment allowance. So option D is correct.

      1 mark

    Answer: Option (D)

    Where the marks are

    • Unemployment allowance if work not provided (1 mark)

  5. Q5 · 1 mark · Assertion-reasonCompetency-basedMoney and Credit

    Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option.

    Assertion (A): Rupees is accepted as medium of exchange in India.

    Reason (R): The World Bank legalises the use of rupee as a medium of payment in India.

    1. (A)Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
    2. (B)Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
    3. (C)(A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
    4. (D)(A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. A is true: the rupee is accepted as a medium of exchange in India. R is false: the Reserve Bank of India issues the currency and the law of the Indian government authorises the rupee, not the World Bank.

      1 mark

    Answer: Option (C)

    Where the marks are

    • A true, R false because the RBI and Indian law authorise the rupee (1 mark)

  6. Q6 · 1 mark · MCQSectors of the Indian Economy

    Find the odd one out.

    1. (A)Hindustan Computers Limited
    2. (B)Hindustan Unilever
    3. (C)Bharti Airtel Limited
    4. (D)Indian Postal Service
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. Hindustan Computers, Hindustan Unilever and Bharti Airtel are private sector companies. The Indian Postal Service is run by the government and belongs to the public sector, so it is the odd one out.

      1 mark

    Answer: Option (D)

    Where the marks are

    • Identifies Indian Postal Service as public sector (1 mark)

  7. Q7 · 1 mark · MCQPrint Culture and the Modern World

    Match the Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option from the following:

    Column-I (Publications)Column-II (Authors)
    a. Bengal Gazettei. Tulsidas
    b. Kesariii. James August Hickey
    c. Ramcharitmanasiii. Ram Mohan Roy
    d. Samvad Kaumudiiv. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
    1. (A)a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
    2. (B)a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
    3. (C)a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
    4. (D)a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. Bengal Gazette was edited by James Augustus Hickey (a-ii). Kesari was Tilak's paper (b-iv). Ramcharitmanas was written by Tulsidas (c-i). Samvad Kaumudi was Ram Mohan Roy's journal (d-iii). So a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii.

      1 mark

    Answer: Option (C)

    Where the marks are

    • All four matches correct (1 mark)

  8. Q8 · 1 mark · MCQNationalism in India

    Arrange the following historical events in chronological order and choose the correct option:

    I. Second Round Table Conference
    II. Simon Commission arrives in India
    III. Beginning of Dandi March
    IV. Incident of Chauri-Chaura

    1. (A)I, II, III and IV
    2. (B)IV, II, III and I
    3. (C)IV, II, I and III
    4. (D)I, II, IV and III
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. Chauri-Chaura happened in 1922, the Simon Commission arrived in 1928, the Dandi March began in 1930 and the Second Round Table Conference was in 1931. The order is IV, II, III, I.

      1 mark

    Answer: Option (B)

    Where the marks are

    • Correct order IV, II, III, I (1 mark)

  9. Q9 · 1 mark · MCQThe Making of a Global World

    In the 17th century the city El Dorado in South America became famous as which one of the following?

    1. (A)City of Diversity
    2. (B)City of Gold
    3. (C)Small pox City
    4. (D)Trading City
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. In the 17th century, tales of El Dorado spread across Europe, describing it as a city of gold that drew many treasure-seekers to South America.

      1 mark

    Answer: Option (B) City of Gold

    Where the marks are

    • City of Gold (1 mark)

  10. Q10 · 1 mark · MCQThe Rise of Nationalism in Europe

    Arrange the following regions of Italy in the order of their inclusion in the Unified Italy and choose the correct option:

    I. Venetia
    II. Savoy Sardinia
    III. Sicilies

    1. (A)I, II and III
    2. (B)II, III and I
    3. (C)I, III and II
    4. (D)II, I and III
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. Savoy Sardinia led unification and joined first (1859-60). The Kingdom of the Two Sicilies was added in 1860 by Garibaldi. Venetia was added in 1866. The order is II, III, I.

      1 mark

    Answer: Option (B)

    Where the marks are

    • Correct order II, III, I (1 mark)

  11. Q11 · 1 mark · Assertion-reasonCompetency-basedPower-sharing

    Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option.

    Assertion (A): There was civil war in Sri Lanka.

    Reason (R): An Act was passed in 1956 to secure dominance of Sinhala community on the government.

    1. (A)Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
    2. (B)Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
    3. (C)(A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
    4. (D)(A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. Both are true. The 1956 Act made Sinhala the only official language and ensured Sinhala dominance, which alienated Tamils. This caused conflict that grew into civil war, so R explains A.

      1 mark

    Answer: Option (A)

    Where the marks are

    • Both correct and R explains A (1 mark)

  12. Q12 · 1 mark · MCQPolitical Parties

    Choose the correct option related to the regional political parties of India:

    Party NameElection SymbolState
    Rashtriya Lok DalMashalUttar Pradesh
    Telugu DesamCycleAndhra Pradesh
    Telangana Rashtra SamitiKiteTelangana
    Shiromani Akali DalChashmaPunjab
    1. (A)Rashtriya Lok Dal, Mashal, Uttar Pradesh
    2. (B)Telugu Desam, Cycle, Andhra Pradesh
    3. (C)Telangana Rashtra Samiti, Kite, Telangana
    4. (D)Shiromani Akali Dal, Chashma, Punjab
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. The Telugu Desam Party has the bicycle symbol and is from Andhra Pradesh, so this row is correct. Other rows are wrongly paired: Telangana Rashtra Samiti has the Car symbol, Rashtriya Lok Dal has the Handpump, and Shiromani Akali Dal has the Scales.

      1 mark

    Answer: Option (B)

    Where the marks are

    • Identifies Telugu Desam, Cycle, Andhra Pradesh (1 mark)

  13. Q13 · 1 mark · MCQFederalism

    Choose the correct option related to Union list.

    1. (A)Police, Foreign affairs, Agriculture
    2. (B)Trade, Irrigation, Marriage
    3. (C)Education, Commerce, Banking
    4. (D)Currency, Communication, Defence
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. The Union List has subjects of national importance such as currency, communication and defence. Police, agriculture, irrigation and marriage are State or Concurrent subjects.

      1 mark

    Answer: Option (D)

    Where the marks are

    • Currency, Communication, Defence (1 mark)

  14. Q14 · 1 mark · MCQFederalism

    Read the following statements regarding the creation of States on the basis of language in India and choose the correct options:

    I. Formation of states on the basis of language made the country more united and stronger.
    II. Formation of states on the basis of language made administration easier.
    III. Formation of states on the basis of language has weakened the federal structure.
    IV. Formation of states on the basis of language led to the development of Indian languages.

    1. (A)Only I, II and III are correct.
    2. (B)Only II, III and IV are correct.
    3. (C)Only I, II and IV are correct.
    4. (D)Only I, III and IV are correct.
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. Linguistic states made the country more united, made administration easier and helped Indian languages develop. They did not weaken federalism, so III is wrong. Hence I, II and IV are correct.

      1 mark

    Answer: Option (C)

    Where the marks are

    • I, II, IV correct; III rejected (1 mark)

  15. Q15 · 1 mark · MCQOutcomes of Democracy

    How is democracy better than other forms of Government? Choose the most appropriate option.

    1. (A)It enhances the dignity of individuals.
    2. (B)It promotes equality among elites.
    3. (C)It promotes tendency of private ownership only.
    4. (D)It increases the individualism.
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. Democracy treats all citizens as equals and respects their freedom and dignity. The other options do not describe the merits of democracy.

      1 mark

    Answer: Option (A)

    Where the marks are

    • Enhances dignity of individuals (1 mark)

  16. Q16 · 1 mark · MCQPower-sharing

    Belgium took some measures to solve its problem. Read the following measures and choose the correct option:

    I. Formation of community government.
    II. Following majoritarian policy.
    III. By providing equal representation of language groups.
    IV. By providing additional powers to local governments.

    1. (A)Only I, II and III are correct.
    2. (B)Only I, III and IV are correct.
    3. (C)Only I, II and IV are correct.
    4. (D)Only II, III and IV are correct.
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. Belgium created community governments, gave equal representation to the language groups in the central government, and gave more power to state/local governments. Majoritarian policy was Sri Lanka's approach, so II is wrong.

      1 mark

    Answer: Option (B)

    Where the marks are

    • I, III, IV correct; II rejected (1 mark)

  17. Q17 · 1 mark · MCQForest and Wildlife Resources

    Which state of India has the maximum area under permanent forest?

    1. (A)Haryana
    2. (B)Himachal Pradesh
    3. (C)Punjab
    4. (D)Madhya Pradesh
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. Madhya Pradesh has the largest area under permanent forests, about 75 percent of its forest area, while Haryana, Punjab and Himachal have much less.

      1 mark

    Answer: Option (D) Madhya Pradesh

    Where the marks are

    • Madhya Pradesh (1 mark)

  18. Q18 · 1 mark · MCQMinerals and Energy Resources

    Read the characteristics given in the box and identify the type of coal from the option given below:

    • This is low grade brown coal.
    • The principal reserves are in Neyveli in Tamilnadu.
    • It is soft with high moisture content.
    1. (A)Pit Coal
    2. (B)Anthrasite Coal
    3. (C)Lignite Coal
    4. (D)Bituminous Coal
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. Low-grade brown coal that is soft with high moisture, found at Neyveli in Tamil Nadu, is lignite.

      1 mark

    Answer: Option (C) Lignite Coal

    Where the marks are

    • Lignite (1 mark)

  19. Q19 · 1 mark · MCQAgriculture

    Which among the following crop is known as 'Golden Fibre'?

    1. (A)Cotton
    2. (B)Wool
    3. (C)Jute
    4. (D)Silk
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. Jute is called the Golden Fibre because of its golden colour and its economic value.

      1 mark

    Answer: Option (C) Jute

    Where the marks are

    • Jute (1 mark)

  20. Q20 · 1 mark · MCQWater Resources

    Choose the correctly matched pair:

    I (Multi-purpose River Project)II (River)
    Gandhi SagarChambal
    HirakudGodavari
    Nagarjuna SagarKaveri
    SalalBeas
    1. (A)Gandhi Sagar – Chambal
    2. (B)Hirakud – Godavari
    3. (C)Nagarjuna Sagar – Kaveri
    4. (D)Salal – Beas
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. Gandhi Sagar is on the Chambal. Hirakud is on the Mahanadi, Nagarjuna Sagar on the Krishna and Salal on the Chenab, so only A is correct.

      1 mark

    Answer: Option (A)

    Where the marks are

    • Gandhi Sagar – Chambal (1 mark)

Section B

Very Short Answer (max 40 words); 24 has internal choice

  1. Q21 · 2 marks · Very short answerGlobalisation and the Indian Economy

    How did information and communication technology promote the process of Globalization? Explain.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. Globalisation is the rapid integration of countries. Improved technology has been a major factor in speeding it up, and information and communication technology (ICT) is the most remarkable part of this.

      1 mark

    2. Satellite communication, mobile phones, the internet and fax let people contact each other instantly across the world. They allow business deals, orders and money transfers to happen quickly and cheaply, so production and trade spread across countries.

      1 mark

    Answer: ICT (satellites, mobiles, internet) enabled fast, cheap worldwide communication and trade, which speeded up globalisation.

    Where the marks are

    • Links technology/ICT to rapid integration of countries (1 mark)
    • Gives examples such as satellite communication, mobiles, fax and internet, with their effect (1 mark)

    Open Q21 on its own page

  2. Q22 · 2 marks · Very short answerNationalism in India

    How did Indians react to the Jallianwala Bagh massacre? Explain.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. On 13 April 1919 General Dyer fired on a peaceful crowd gathered in the enclosed Jallianwala Bagh at Amritsar for the Baisakhi fair. He blocked the exits and killed hundreds, intending to create terror and awe among satyagrahis.

      1 mark

    2. When the news spread, people in many North Indian towns came out on the streets. There were strikes, clashes with the police and attacks on government buildings.

      1 mark

    Answer: Indians reacted with widespread protest: strikes, street demonstrations, clashes with police and attacks on government buildings in many North Indian towns.

    Where the marks are

    • Explains the Jallianwala Bagh incident briefly (1 mark)
    • States the reaction: strikes, clashes with police, attacks on government buildings (1 mark)

    Open Q22 on its own page

  3. Q23 · 2 marks · Very short answerMinerals and Energy Resources

    Why is the conservation of conventional sources of energy significant? Explain any two reasons.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. Energy is a basic requirement for economic development. Agriculture, industry, transport, commerce and homes all need energy inputs, and its consumption keeps rising, so a sustainable path of energy use is urgently needed.

      1 mark

    2. Conventional sources such as coal and petroleum took millions of years to form. They are exhaustible and cannot be replaced quickly, so they must be conserved for future generations.

      1 mark

    Answer: Conservation is significant because development in every sector depends on energy, and conventional sources like coal are non-renewable, taking millions of years to form.

    Where the marks are

    • Energy is essential for development of all sectors (1 mark)
    • Conventional sources are exhaustible and need millions of years to form (1 mark)

    Open Q23 on its own page

  4. Answer one of these 2 alternatives.

    Q24(a) · 2 marks · Very short answerGender, Religion and Caste

    Suggest any two measures to promote secularism as mentioned in the Indian Constitution.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. India has no official religion. The Constitution gives no special status to any religion, and the state treats all religions equally.

      1 mark

    2. The Constitution gives everyone the freedom to profess, practise and propagate any religion, or none. It prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, and the state may intervene in religious matters to ensure equality within communities.

      1 mark

    Answer: No official religion; freedom of religion for all; no discrimination on religious grounds; state may intervene to ensure equality.

    Where the marks are

    • Any one measure explained, e.g. no official state religion (1 mark)
    • Any second measure explained, e.g. freedom of religion or prohibition of discrimination (1 mark)

    Open Q24(a) on its own page

    OR

    Q24(b) · 2 marks · Very short answerGender, Religion and Caste

    Suggest any two measures to ensure participation of women in public life.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. Raise the literacy and education level of women and promote gender equality, so that women can take up jobs and public roles.

      1 mark

    2. Enforce laws such as the Equal Remuneration Act strictly and increase women's representation in politics, e.g. the Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam 2023 reserves legislative seats for women.

      1 mark

    Answer: Promote women's education and equality; enforce equal pay laws; ensure political representation through reservation.

    Where the marks are

    • One measure explained, e.g. education/literacy and gender equality (1 mark)
    • Second measure explained, e.g. Equal Remuneration Act or reservation (1 mark)

    Open Q24(b) on its own page

Section C

Short Answer (max 60 words); 28 has internal choice

  1. Q25 · 3 marks · Short answerSectors of the Indian Economy

    Define 'Gross Domestic Product' and explain its importance. (1 + 2 = 3)

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. Definition: GDP is the value of all final goods and services produced within a country in a particular year. It is the sum of the production of the primary, secondary and tertiary sectors.

      1 mark

    2. Importance: it is an indicator of a country's standard of living and shows how healthy its economy is.

      1 mark

    3. It also lets us compare the performance of different sectors and different countries and helps in planning development.

      1 mark

    Answer: GDP is the total value of final goods and services produced in a country in a year; it indicates the economy's health and living standards.

    Where the marks are

    • Defines GDP as value of final goods and services in a year, summed over three sectors (1 mark)
    • Importance: indicates the health of the economy (1 mark)
    • Importance: indicator of standard of living or basis for comparison (1 mark)

    Open Q25 on its own page

  2. Q26 · 3 marks · Short answerThe Rise of Nationalism in Europe

    Explain the main provisions of the Napoleonic Code – 1804.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. The Civil Code of 1804 did away with all privileges based on birth, established equality before the law and secured the right to property.

      1 mark

    2. Napoleon simplified administrative divisions, abolished the feudal system and freed peasants from serfdom and manorial dues. Guild restrictions in towns were removed.

      1 mark

    3. Transport and communication were improved. Peasants, artisans, workers and businessmen enjoyed new freedom, and uniform laws, standard weights and measures and a common currency eased the movement of goods and capital.

      1 mark

    Answer: The Code ended birth privileges, gave equality before law and property rights, abolished feudalism and guild restrictions, and standardised laws, weights and currency.

    Where the marks are

    • Equality before law, end of birth privileges, right to property (1 mark)
    • Abolition of feudal system and serfdom, simpler administration, removal of guild restrictions (1 mark)
    • Improved transport, uniform weights, measures and currency (1 mark)

    Open Q26 on its own page

  3. Q27 · 3 marks · Short answerAgriculture

    Explain any three features of Plantation Agriculture.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. A single crop is grown on a large area, covering vast tracts of land.

      1 mark

    2. It is capital intensive, using large investment and often migrant labour. It forms an interface between agriculture and industry.

      1 mark

    3. All the produce is used as raw material in related industries. Tea, coffee, rubber, sugarcane and banana are important plantation crops in India.

      1 mark

    Answer: Plantation agriculture: single crop on large area, capital intensive, link between agriculture and industry, produce used as industrial raw material.

    Where the marks are

    • Single crop on large tracts (1 mark)
    • Capital intensive inputs / agriculture-industry interface (1 mark)
    • Produce used as industrial raw material, with examples (1 mark)

    Open Q27 on its own page

  4. Answer one of these 2 alternatives.

    Q28(a) · 3 marks · Short answerWater Resources

    Explain any three factors responsible for water pollution.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. Industrial waste and effluents, both organic and inorganic, are discharged into rivers. The main culprits are paper, pulp, chemical, textile and dyeing, petroleum, tannery and electroplating industries.

      1 mark

    2. These industries release dyes, detergents, acids, salts, heavy metals like lead and mercury, pesticides, fertilisers and plastics into water bodies.

      1 mark

    3. Solid wastes such as fly ash, phospho-gypsum and iron and steel slag add to the pollution of water.

      1 mark

    Answer: Industrial effluents, chemicals and heavy metals, and solid wastes like fly ash and slag pollute water.

    Where the marks are

    • Industrial effluents discharged in rivers, naming industries (1 mark)
    • Chemicals, heavy metals, pesticides, fertilisers entering water (1 mark)
    • Solid wastes such as fly ash and slag (1 mark)

    Open Q28(a) on its own page

    OR

    Q28(b) · 3 marks · Short answerResources and Development

    Explain any three factors responsible for air pollution.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. Air pollution is caused by a high proportion of undesirable gases such as sulphur dioxide and carbon monoxide.

      1 mark

    2. Airborne particulates such as dust, spray, mist and smoke are released. Smoke comes from chemical and paper factories, brick kilns, refineries and smelting plants, and from burning fossil fuels in factories that ignore pollution norms.

      1 mark

    3. Toxic gas leaks are hazardous with long-term effects, and air pollution harms human health, animals, plants, buildings and the atmosphere.

      1 mark

    Answer: Harmful gases, particulate matter and smoke from industries and fossil fuels, and toxic gas leaks cause air pollution.

    Where the marks are

    • Undesirable gases such as SO2 and CO (1 mark)
    • Particulate matter and smoke from factories, kilns and burning of fossil fuels (1 mark)
    • Toxic gas leaks and their harmful effects (1 mark)

    Open Q28(b) on its own page

  5. Q29 · 3 marks · Short answerFederalism

    Differentiate between federal and unitary form of government with examples.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. Federal system: there are two or more levels of government, and power is divided between them. Central and state governments work in coordination, with decentralisation and a balance of power. Examples: USA, Belgium.

      1 mark

    2. Unitary system: there is only one level of government, or sub-units are subordinate to the central government. All powers are vested in the centre, so power is centralised.

      1 mark

    3. In a unitary system the central government can pass orders to the provincial units, which have no independent powers. Example: Sri Lanka.

      1 mark

    Answer: Federal: two or more levels with divided power (e.g. USA/Belgium). Unitary: one level, with power centralised (e.g. Sri Lanka).

    Where the marks are

    • Federal features: two or more levels, decentralisation, balance of power (1 mark)
    • Unitary features: single level, centralised power, sub-units subordinate (1 mark)
    • Examples of both systems (1 mark)

    Open Q29 on its own page

Section D

Long Answer (max 120 words); 30-33 each have internal choice

  1. Answer one of these 2 alternatives.

    Q30(a) · 5 marks · Long answerCompetency-basedResources and Development

    "The consequences of environmental degradation do not respect national and state boundaries." Examine the statement in context of sustainability of development.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. Sustainable development means economic development without damaging the environment, so that future generations can also use resources. Scientists have warned since the later twentieth century that present resource use is unsustainable.

      1 mark

    2. Environmental harm crosses boundaries. Poor air quality in one town or country affects the neighbouring city or country.

      1 mark

    3. Global warming and climate change result from unwise use of resources and are felt by people across national and state boundaries.

      1 mark

    4. Renewable resources like groundwater are overused, and urbanisation and industrialisation have depleted water reserves.

      1 mark

    5. Non-renewable resources like coal and petroleum must be used judiciously to reduce degradation. Our future is linked together, so all must sustain development for coming generations.

      1 mark

    Answer: Environmental degradation, such as air pollution and climate change, affects neighbours and the whole world, so sustainable resource use is a shared responsibility.

    Where the marks are

    • Meaning of sustainable development (1 mark)
    • Pollution spreads beyond borders, with an example (1 mark)
    • Global warming/climate change is felt everywhere (1 mark)
    • Overuse of resources such as groundwater (1 mark)
    • Judicious use of non-renewables, concern for future generations (1 mark)

    Open Q30(a) on its own page

    OR

    Q30(b) · 5 marks · Long answerCompetency-basedWater Resources

    "The question of sustainability of development becoming more complex day by day." Examine the statement in context of use of underground water in India.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. Sustainability is becoming more serious because valuable resources are depleting faster every day. Sustainable development means growth without harming the environment.

      1 mark

    2. Groundwater is a renewable resource that is overused in India.

      1 mark

    3. Evidence shows groundwater is under serious threat of overuse. Many districts have reported a decline in water level.

      1 mark

    4. About one-third of the country is over-extracting from its groundwater reserves. If this continues, many more parts will face shortages.

      1 mark

    5. Non-renewable resources are also overused and some are near exhaustion, yet resources must be left in decent quantity for future generations, so balancing development and conservation grows more complex.

      1 mark

    Answer: Groundwater is being over-extracted in about one-third of India, so balancing present development with future needs is increasingly complex.

    Where the marks are

    • Resources depleting faster, meaning of sustainability (1 mark)
    • Groundwater as an overused renewable resource (1 mark)
    • Falling water levels in many districts (1 mark)
    • About one-third of the country over-extracting; future risk (1 mark)
    • Need to preserve resources for future generations (1 mark)

    Open Q30(b) on its own page

  2. Answer one of these 2 alternatives.

    Q31(a) · 5 marks · Long answerPrint Culture and the Modern World

    Analyse the changes in Indian printing by the end of the 19th century.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. More printing presses were set up, so visual images could be easily reproduced in multiple copies.

      1 mark

    2. Painters like Raja Ravi Varma produced images for mass circulation.

      1 mark

    3. Cheap prints and calendars were available in the bazaar, and even poor people could buy them to decorate their homes or workplaces.

      1 mark

    4. These prints shaped popular ideas about modernity and tradition, religion and politics, society and culture.

      1 mark

    5. By the 1870s journals and newspapers carried caricatures and cartoons on political and social issues. Some ridiculed educated Indians who were fascinated with Western taste and clothes, while others expressed fear of social change.

      1 mark

    Answer: Presses multiplied images; Ravi Varma's prints, cheap calendars and cartoons reached ordinary people and shaped opinions on society and politics.

    Where the marks are

    • Multiple reproduction of images through more presses (1 mark)
    • Ravi Varma's mass-circulated images (1 mark)
    • Cheap prints and calendars bought by the poor (1 mark)
    • Prints shaped ideas on religion, politics and society (1 mark)
    • Caricatures and cartoons in journals by the 1870s (1 mark)

    Open Q31(a) on its own page

    OR

    Q31(b) · 5 marks · Long answerPrint Culture and the Modern World

    Analyze the significant changes in printing technology during 19th century in the world.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. Richard M. Hoe of New York perfected the power-driven cylindrical press, which printed much faster.

      1 mark

    2. The offset press was developed, which could print up to six colours at a time.

      1 mark

    3. Electrically operated presses accelerated printing operations.

      1 mark

    4. The method of feeding paper improved, and the quality of plates became better.

      1 mark

    5. Automatic paper reels and photoelectric controls of colour registers were introduced. These accumulated mechanical improvements transformed the appearance of printed texts.

      1 mark

    Answer: Hoe's cylindrical press, offset colour printing, electric presses, better paper feeding and plates, and automatic reels transformed printing.

    Where the marks are

    • Power-driven cylindrical press by Hoe (1 mark)
    • Offset press printing six colours (1 mark)
    • Electrically operated press (1 mark)
    • Better paper feeding and plates (1 mark)
    • Automatic paper reels, photoelectric controls, overall transformation (1 mark)

    Open Q31(b) on its own page

  3. Answer one of these 2 alternatives.

    Q32(a) · 5 marks · Long answerResources and Development

    Explain the main features of alluvial soil.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. Alluvial soil is deposited by the three Himalayan river systems, the Indus, Ganga and Brahmaputra. It consists of varying proportions of sand, silt and clay.

      1 mark

    2. Moving inland towards the river valleys, soil particles become somewhat bigger. Near the break of slope in piedmont plains such as Duars, Chos and Terai, the soils are coarse.

      1 mark

    3. By age, alluvial soil is classified as old (Bangar) and new (Khadar).

      1 mark

    4. Bangar has more kankar nodules, while Khadar has finer particles and is more fertile.

      1 mark

    5. The soil is rich in potash, phosphoric acid and lime, ideal for sugarcane, paddy, wheat and other cereals and pulses. Being fertile, these regions are intensively cultivated and densely populated.

      1 mark

    Answer: Alluvial soil: deposited by Himalayan rivers, sand-silt-clay mix, Bangar and Khadar types, rich in potash, phosphoric acid and lime, very fertile.

    Where the marks are

    • Formed by deposition by Indus, Ganga, Brahmaputra; composition (1 mark)
    • Particle size varies with location (1 mark)
    • Classified as Bangar and Khadar (1 mark)
    • Differences in kankar and fertility (1 mark)
    • Nutrients, suitable crops, dense population (1 mark)

    Open Q32(a) on its own page

    OR

    Q32(b) · 5 marks · Long answerResources and Development

    Explain the various stages of resource planning and its need in India. (3 + 2 = 5)

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. Stage 1: identification and inventory of resources across the regions, by surveying, mapping and qualitative and quantitative estimation of them.

      1 mark

    2. Stage 2: evolving a planning structure with appropriate technology, skill and institutional set-up to implement resource development plans.

      1 mark

    3. Stage 3: matching the resource development plans with the overall national development plans.

      1 mark

    4. Need: resources are essential for development, but technology and quality human resources are also prerequisites for development of any region.

      1 mark

    5. Resources are unevenly distributed across India, so planning is needed to use them judiciously and balance regional development.

      1 mark

    Answer: Stages: inventory of resources; planning structure with technology and institutions; matching with national plans. Need: resources are vital and unevenly distributed.

    Where the marks are

    • Identification and inventory by survey and mapping (1 mark)
    • Planning structure with technology, skill and institutions (1 mark)
    • Matching with national development plans (1 mark)
    • Resources essential for development, with technology and human resources (1 mark)
    • Uneven distribution of resources (1 mark)

    Open Q32(b) on its own page

  4. Answer one of these 2 alternatives.

    Q33(a) · 5 marks · Long answerPower-sharing

    "The law enacted in 1956 and other Constitutional Provisions led to major conflict between the two communities in Sri Lanka." Support the statement.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. The 1956 Act made Sinhala the only official language of Sri Lanka, ignoring Tamil, so Tamils were disadvantaged in administration and jobs.

      1 mark

    2. Government policies favoured Sinhala applicants for university admissions and government jobs, which reduced Tamil opportunities.

      1 mark

    3. A new constitution directed the state to protect and foster Buddhism, giving the majority religion a preferred place over other faiths.

      1 mark

    4. This majoritarianism increased the sense of alienation among Sri Lankan Tamils, who felt that the Constitution and policies denied them equal political rights.

      1 mark

    5. Tamils launched parties and struggles for recognition of Tamil as an official language and for regional autonomy and equal opportunity in education and jobs. Their demands were repeatedly denied, so relations between the two communities became strained and led to major conflict.

      1 mark

    Answer: Sinhala-only Act of 1956, preferential policies, state protection of Buddhism and denial of Tamil demands led to alienation and conflict.

    Where the marks are

    • Sinhala made the only official language in 1956 (1 mark)
    • Preferential treatment for Sinhalas in jobs and university admissions (1 mark)
    • State to protect and foster Buddhism (1 mark)
    • Tamils' alienation and feeling of denied political rights (1 mark)
    • Tamil demands for language recognition and autonomy denied, leading to strained relations and conflict (1 mark)

    Open Q33(a) on its own page

    OR

    Q33(b) · 5 marks · Long answerPower-sharing

    "Power sharing increases trust between different groups." Support the statement.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. The basic principle of democracy is that people are the source of all political power, and in a democracy everyone has a voice in shaping public policies.

      1 mark

    2. Power sharing reduces the possibility of conflict between social groups, because each group gets a share in decisions and feels respected.

      1 mark

    3. Power sharing is the very spirit of democracy: a democratic rule involves sharing power with those affected by its exercise.

      1 mark

    4. It accommodates social diversity and gives space to religious and linguistic groups. Belgium's arrangement, with Dutch- and French-speaking communities sharing power, is a prime example.

      1 mark

    5. It gives minority communities a fair share in power, so they feel included and trust other groups and the government. This builds stable, lasting unity.

      1 mark

    Answer: Power sharing gives every group a voice and a fair share, reduces conflict and accommodates diversity, so it builds trust.

    Where the marks are

    • People as source of power, a voice for all (1 mark)
    • Reduces conflict (1 mark)
    • Spirit of democracy (1 mark)
    • Accommodates diversity, Belgium example (1 mark)
    • Fair share for minorities builds trust (1 mark)

    Open Q33(b) on its own page

Section E

Case/Source-based with three subparts each

  1. Q34 · 4 marks · Case-basedCompetency-basedMoney and Credit

    Read the following source and answer the questions that follow:

    Loans from Co-operatives

    Besides banks, the other major source of cheap credit in rural areas are the co-operative societies. Members of a co-operative pool their resources for co-operation in certain areas. There are several types of co-operatives possible such as farmers co-operatives, weavers co-operatives, industrial workers co-operatives etc.

    Krishak Co-operative functions in a village not very far away from Sonpur. It has 2300 farmers as members. It accepts deposits from its members. With these deposits as collateral, the co-operative has obtained a large loan from the bank. These funds are used to provide loans to members. Once these loans are repaid, another round of lending can take place.

    Krishak Co-operative provides loans for the purchase of agriculture equipments, loans for cultivation and agricultural trade, fishery loans, loans for constructions of houses and for variety of other expenses.

    1. (34.1)

      Which sector includes credit facilities offered by Co-operative Societies?

      1 mark
    2. (34.2)

      How do Self-Help Groups access external funding?

      1 mark
    3. (34.3)

      Explain the functioning of Co-operative Societies.

      2 marks
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. (34.1) Credit from co-operative societies belongs to the formal sector of credit.

      1 mark

    2. (34.2) Self-Help Groups access external funding through loans from banks, and also from co-operatives or the government.

      1 mark

    3. (34.3) Members of a co-operative pool their resources for co-operation in certain areas, and it accepts deposits from its members. Using these deposits as collateral, it obtains a large loan from a bank.

      1 mark

    4. (34.3) The funds are lent to members for farm equipment, cultivation, fishery, house construction and other expenses. Once loans are repaid, another round of lending takes place.

      1 mark

    Answer: (34.1) Formal source of credit; (34.2) loans from banks, co-operatives or government; (34.3) pooled member deposits, bank loan, lending to members, repayment and relending.

    Where the marks are

    • Formal sector (1 mark)
    • SHG funding via banks/co-operatives/government (1 mark)
    • Pooling resources and obtaining a bank loan against deposits (1 mark)
    • Lending to members and relending after repayment (1 mark)

    Open Q34 on its own page

  2. Q35 · 4 marks · Case-basedCompetency-basedNationalism in India

    Read the following source and answer the questions that follow:

    The Independence Day Pledge, 26 January 1930

    "We believe that it is the inalienable right of the Indian people, as of any other people, to have freedom and to enjoy the fruits of their toil and have the necessities of life, so that they may have full opportunities of growth. We also believe that if any government deprives people of these rights and oppresses them, the people have a further right to alter it or abolish it. The British Government in India has not only deprived the Indian people of their freedom but based itself on the exploitation of the masses, and has ruined India economically, politically, culturally and spiritually. We believe, therefore, that India must sever the British connection and attain Purna Swaraj or Complete Independence."

    1. (35.1)

      Why was Swaraj considered as an inalienable right of the India?

      1 mark
    2. (35.2)

      Which type of government is supported in the source?

      1 mark
    3. (35.3)

      Explain any two effects of British rule in India.

      2 marks
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. (35.1) Swaraj was seen as a necessary condition for the freedom and growth of every Indian, so every people has a natural right to it.

      1 mark

    2. (35.2) The source supports a democratic, independent government, with Purna Swaraj and the people having the right to alter or abolish an oppressive government.

      1 mark

    3. (35.3) British rule ruined India economically, politically, culturally and spiritually.

      1 mark

    4. (35.3) It deprived Indians of their freedom and exploited the masses.

      1 mark

    Answer: (35.1) Needed for freedom and growth; (35.2) democratic, independent government; (35.3) ruined India in all spheres; deprived freedom and exploited the masses.

    Where the marks are

    • Swaraj necessary for freedom and growth (1 mark)
    • Democratic independent government (1 mark)
    • Any one effect of British rule, such as ruin in all spheres (1 mark)
    • Any second effect, such as loss of freedom or exploitation (1 mark)

    Open Q35 on its own page

  3. Q36 · 4 marks · Case-basedCompetency-basedPolitical Parties

    Read the following source and answer the questions that follow:

    The Need for Political Parties

    As we have seen, large societies need representative democracy. As societies became large and complex, they also needed some agency to gather different views on various issues and to present these to the government. They needed some ways, to bring various representatives together so that a responsible government could be formed. They needed a mechanism to support or restrain the government, make policies, justify or oppose them. Political parties fulfil these needs that every representative government has. We can say that parties are a necessary condition for a democracy.

    1. (36.1)

      Explain the meaning of 'representative democracy'.

      1 mark
    2. (36.2)

      How do political parties shape public opinion?

      1 mark
    3. (36.3)

      Why are political parties considered a necessary condition for a democracy? Explain.

      2 marks
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. (36.1) Representative democracy is a system in which citizens choose their representatives to rule on their behalf. It is also called indirect democracy.

      1 mark

    2. (36.2) Parties raise and highlight issues and launch movements on people's problems, and opinion in society often forms along the lines parties take.

      1 mark

    3. (36.3) Large, complex societies need a mechanism to gather views and present them to the government, and to bring representatives together to form a responsible government.

      1 mark

    4. (36.3) Parties support or restrain the government, make policies, and justify or oppose them, so they are pillars and a necessary condition for democracy.

      1 mark

    Answer: (36.1) People elect representatives to govern for them; (36.2) by raising issues and launching movements; (36.3) they gather views, form governments, and support or check them.

    Where the marks are

    • Meaning of representative democracy (1 mark)
    • How parties shape opinion (1 mark)
    • Gathering views and forming a responsible government (1 mark)
    • Supporting or restraining government, making policies (1 mark)

    Open Q36 on its own page

Section F

Map Skill based: 37(a) History 2 marks, 37(b) Geography 3 marks

  1. Q37 · 5 marks · Map workNationalism in India

    Answer the following.

    1. (a)

      Two places 'A' and 'B' have been marked on the given political outline map of India. Identify them with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them:

      2 marks
    2. (b)

      On the same outline map of India locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols:

      3 marks

    Figure in the paper: Outline political map of India (Map for Q. No. 37). Point A is marked with an arrow on the south-eastern coast, in the Tamil Nadu region. Point B is marked with an arrow in western India, in the Gujarat region near the Gulf of Khambhat/Kathiawar area. Scale 1:15,000,000. Blank outline political map of India on the same sheet as Q. 37(a); candidates locate and label any three of the four listed features on it. No features are pre-marked except the two places A and B noted in 37(a). See it in the official paper.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. (a) A is Madras (Chennai), where the Indian National Congress held its 1927 session. It is on the Tamil Nadu coast.

      1 mark

    2. (a) B is Ahmedabad in Gujarat, where Gandhi led the cotton mill workers' movement.

      1 mark

    3. (b) Any three: an international airport in Punjab, Amritsar (Raja Sansi), marked near the north-west.

      1 mark

    4. (b) Major sea port in Gujarat: Kandla (Deendayal) port on the Gulf of Kachchh; oil field in the Arabian Sea: Mumbai High off the Maharashtra coast.

      1 mark

    5. (b) Nuclear power plant in Uttar Pradesh: Narora. Mark each chosen feature with a suitable symbol and label it on the map.

      1 mark

    Answer: A: Madras (Chennai); B: Ahmedabad. (b) Amritsar airport, Kandla port, Mumbai High, Narora (any three).

    Where the marks are

    • A correctly identified (1 mark)
    • B correctly identified (1 mark)
    • Each of three features correctly located and labelled (1 mark each)

    Open Q37 on its own page

Source: official question paper, cbse.gov.in. Chapter tags and solutions are ours. Spotted a transcription error? Write tosupport@questionbuddy.in.