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CBSE Class 10 Social Science 2026 Question Paper (32/4/1)

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Social ScienceCBSE Class 10 · Board exam 2026 (session 2025-26)

CBSE Class 10 Social Science: 2026 board paper, set 32/4/1

The question paper set in the CBSE Class 10 board exam of 2026, as printed: 38 questions for 80 marks, in sections, with each OR choice shown as an alternative. Try each question first, then open our solution.

Every question here has our step-by-step solution, split into the steps that earn marks. Each one was checked by an independent re-solve from the question paper.

Source: official question paper from cbse.gov.in: https://www.cbse.gov.in/cbsenew/question-paper/2026/X/Social_Science.zip (a zip; this paper is the file 1165-1_32-4-1_Social Sc..pdf). Questions are transcribed from that PDF; figures are described in words, so check the official paper for them. Questions printed only for visually impaired candidates are left out (4).

Practise a paper like this, timedMy board paper sets a full paper in this exact format from real board questions, with a timer.Get your written answers markedThe Answer Coach marks a photo of your handwritten answer step by step, like the examiner.

How the paper is set

SectionQuestionsWhat it has
A1-9History, 20 marks. MCQ 1-4 (1 mark); VSA 5 (2 marks); SA 6 (3 marks); LA 7 (5 marks); CBQ 8 (4 marks); map-based 9 (2 marks). Internal choice in 5, 6, 7. VI alternative for 3 and 9.
B10-19Geography, 20 marks. MCQ 10-15 (1 mark); VSA 16 (2 marks); LA 17 (5 marks, internal choice); CBQ 18 (4 marks); map-based 19 (3 marks). VI alternative for 19.
C20-28Political Science, 20 marks. MCQ/AR 20-23 (1 mark); VSA 24-25 (2 marks); SA 26 (3 marks); LA 27 (5 marks, internal choice); CBQ 28 (4 marks). VI alternative for 21.
D29-38Economics, 20 marks. MCQ 29-34 (1 mark); SA 35-37 (3 marks); LA 38 (5 marks, internal choice).

Instructions in brief: All 38 questions are compulsory; no overall choice, but internal choice (OR) is given in Q5, Q6, Q7, Q17, Q27 and Q38, and only one alternative of each is to be attempted. Visually impaired candidates attempt the separate questions given in lieu of Q3, Q9, Q19 and Q21.

Section A

History, 20 marks. MCQ 1-4 (1 mark); VSA 5 (2 marks); SA 6 (3 marks); LA 7 (5 marks); CBQ 8 (4 marks); map-based 9 (2 marks). Internal choice in 5, 6, 7. VI alternative for 3 and 9.

  1. Q1 · 1 mark · MCQNationalism in India

    Arrange the following events in chronological order and choose the correct option:
    I. Second Round Table Conference
    II. Formation of Depressed Class Association
    III. Lahore Session of Indian National Congress
    IV. Formation of Awadh Kissan Sabha

    1. (A)I, II, IV, III
    2. (B)I, II, III, IV
    3. (C)IV, III, II, I
    4. (D)IV, III, I, II
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. Awadh Kissan Sabha was formed in 1920 (IV); the Lahore Session was held in December 1929 (III); the Depressed Classes Association was formed in 1930 (II); the Second Round Table Conference took place in 1931 (I).

      1 mark

    Answer: IV, III, II, I, option (C)

    Where the marks are

    • Correct chronological order IV, III, II, I chosen (1 mark)

  2. Q2 · 1 mark · Assertion-reasonCompetency-basedThe Making of a Global World

    Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements and choose the correct option.
    Assertion (A): Silver from Peru and Mexico enhanced Europe's wealth in the sixteenth century.
    Reason (R): Europe used this silver to finance its trade with Asia.

    1. (A)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
    2. (B)Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
    3. (C)(A) is true, but (R) is false.
    4. (D)(A) is false, but (R) is true.
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. Silver from the Americas (Peru, Mexico) added to Europe's wealth, so (A) is true. Europe used it to pay for trade with Asia, so (R) is true and explains how the silver was used to increase wealth and trade.

      1 mark

    Answer: Option (A)

    Where the marks are

    • Identifies both statements as true and (R) as the correct explanation (1 mark)

  3. Q3 · 1 mark · MCQCompetency-basedPrint Culture and the Modern World

    The given painting is from the sixteenth century from Mughal India. Identify the work shown in this painting from the following options:

    1. (A)Minting of coins
    2. (B)Metal crafting
    3. (C)Pottery making
    4. (D)Book making

    Figure in the paper: A Mughal miniature painting showing a workshop scene inside an architectural setting with arched openings. Several craftsmen are seated and working at a low table or platform, with items and materials spread before them. A seated figure in a central position overlooks the work. A line of Persian (Arabic-script) inscription runs along the bottom edge of the painting. See it in the official paper.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. The painting shows craftsmen seated at a low platform inside a workshop with a Persian inscription. This is a Mughal miniature of a book-making (manuscript) workshop, a kitab-khana.

      1 mark

    Answer: Book making, option (D)

    Where the marks are

    • Identifies book making (1 mark)

  4. Q4 · 1 mark · MCQPrint Culture and the Modern World

    Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

    Column – A (Writer)Column – B (Contribution)
    Ram ChaddhaBengal Gazette
    Gangadhar BhattacharyaKesari
    Jyotiba PhuleGulamgiri
    Rashsundari DeviPadmarg
    1. (A)Ram Chaddha – Bengal Gazette
    2. (B)Gangadhar Bhattacharya – Kesari
    3. (C)Jyotiba Phule – Gulamgiri
    4. (D)Rashsundari Devi – Padmarg
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. Jyotiba Phule wrote Gulamgiri (1871) against caste injustice. The other pairs are wrong: Bengal Gazette was Gangadhar Bhattacharya's, Kesari was Tilak's, and Rashsundari Devi wrote Amar Jiban.

      1 mark

    Answer: Jyotiba Phule – Gulamgiri, option (C)

    Where the marks are

    • Chooses the correct pair (1 mark)

  5. Answer one of these 2 alternatives.

    Q5(a) · 2 marks · Very short answerThe Making of a Global World

    "Food offered many examples of long distance cultural exchange during pre-modern times." Explain the statement with any two examples.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. Foods travelled across continents: potatoes, soya, groundnuts, maize, tomatoes, chillies and sweet potatoes were unknown in Europe and Asia until they were introduced from America, which changed diets there.

      1 mark

    2. Noodles and spaghetti: noodles travelled west from China, and this is believed to be how pasta such as spaghetti reached Italy and other parts of the West.

      1 mark

    Answer: Examples: crops from America (potato, maize, chillies etc.) reaching Europe and Asia; noodles travelling west from China as spaghetti.

    Where the marks are

    • First example explained (1 mark)
    • Second example explained (1 mark)

    Open Q5(a) on its own page

    OR

    Q5(b) · 2 marks · Very short answerThe Making of a Global World

    "Trade and cultural exchange went hand-in-hand during pre-modern times." Explain the statement with any two examples.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. The silk routes linked distant regions. Chinese pottery, Indian textiles and spices, and silk travelled to the West, while precious metals such as gold and silver flowed from Europe to Asia. Trade carried ideas and customs along with goods.

      1 mark

    2. Religion and culture travelled the same routes: Christian missionaries and Muslim preachers journeyed to Asia, and Buddhism spread from eastern India in many directions through the silk route points.

      1 mark

    Answer: Silk routes carried goods as well as ideas; missionaries, preachers and Buddhism spread along trade routes.

    Where the marks are

    • First example explained (1 mark)
    • Second example explained (1 mark)

    Open Q5(b) on its own page

  6. Answer one of these 2 alternatives.

    Q6(a) · 3 marks · Short answerPrint Culture and the Modern World

    Evaluate the role of print in the French Revolution.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. Print popularised Enlightenment ideas. The writings of Voltaire and Rousseau criticised tradition, superstition and despotism and argued for the rule of reason. Readers began to see the world in a questioning, critical and rational way.

      1 mark

    2. Print created a culture of dialogue and debate. Values, norms and institutions were re-examined by a public aware of the power of reason, which eroded the authority of the Church and the state.

      1 mark

    3. By the 1780s, literature, cartoons and caricatures mocked royalty and its morals and showed the monarchy absorbed in pleasure while common people suffered. This raised questions about the social order and prepared the ground for revolution.

      1 mark

    Answer: Print spread Enlightenment ideas, created debate, and used satire against the monarchy, creating a climate for the French Revolution.

    Where the marks are

    • Spread of Enlightenment ideas (1 mark)
    • Culture of debate and erosion of authority (1 mark)
    • Satire, cartoons and criticism of monarchy (1 mark)

    Open Q6(a) on its own page

    OR

    Q6(b) · 3 marks · Short answerPrint Culture and the Modern World

    Evaluate the role of Buddhist Missionaries in printing culture.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. Buddhist missionaries from China brought hand-printing technology to Japan around AD 768-770.

      1 mark

    2. The oldest Japanese book, the Buddhist Diamond Sutra, was printed in AD 868 with six sheets of text and woodcut illustrations. Printing was also used for textiles, playing cards and paper money.

      1 mark

    3. In late eighteenth-century Edo, illustrated books depicted urban culture, and libraries and bookstores were full of hand-printed books on women, music, cooking, etiquette, the tea ceremony and more.

      1 mark

    Answer: Buddhist missionaries introduced hand printing to Japan, producing the Diamond Sutra (AD 868) and starting a rich print culture.

    Where the marks are

    • Introduced hand printing in Japan (1 mark)
    • Diamond Sutra 868 and other printed items (1 mark)
    • Edo print culture and books (1 mark)

    Open Q6(b) on its own page

  7. Answer one of these 2 alternatives.

    Q7(a) · 5 marks · Long answerThe Rise of Nationalism in Europe

    Describe the process of unification of Germany.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. In 1848 middle-class Germans tried to unite the German confederation into a nation-state under an elected parliament.

      1 mark

    2. This liberal attempt was suppressed by the monarchy and the military, supported by the Prussian landowners called Junkers.

      1 mark

    3. Prussia then took over leadership of unification, with chief minister Otto von Bismarck as its architect.

      1 mark

    4. Bismarck worked with the Prussian army and bureaucracy. Three wars over seven years, against Austria, Denmark and France, ended in Prussian victory.

      1 mark

    5. In January 1871 the Prussian king William I was proclaimed German Emperor at Versailles, completing unification.

      1 mark

    Answer: Germany was unified under Prussia and Bismarck through three wars, and William I was proclaimed emperor in January 1871.

    Where the marks are

    • 1848 liberal attempt (1 mark)
    • Suppression by monarchy, military and Junkers (1 mark)
    • Prussia's leadership under Bismarck (1 mark)
    • Wars with Austria, Denmark and France (1 mark)
    • Proclamation at Versailles in 1871 (1 mark)

    Open Q7(a) on its own page

    OR

    Q7(b) · 5 marks · Long answerThe Rise of Nationalism in Europe

    Describe the process of unification of Italy.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. In the mid-nineteenth century Italy was divided into seven states. Only Sardinia-Piedmont was ruled by an Italian princely house; the north was under the Austrian Habsburgs, the centre under the Pope and the south under the Bourbon kings of Spain.

      1 mark

    2. Giuseppe Mazzini proposed a unitary Italian Republic in the 1830s and formed the secret society Young Italy.

      1 mark

    3. After the revolutionary uprisings failed in 1831 and 1848, Sardinia-Piedmont under King Victor Emmanuel II took up the task of unification through war.

      1 mark

    4. Chief Minister Cavour made a diplomatic alliance with France, and Sardinia-Piedmont defeated Austria in 1859.

      1 mark

    5. In 1860 Garibaldi and his armed volunteers marched into South Italy and the Kingdom of the Two Sicilies and won peasant support. In 1861 Victor Emmanuel II was proclaimed king of united Italy.

      1 mark

    Answer: Italy was unified by Sardinia-Piedmont under Victor Emmanuel II, Cavour and Garibaldi, and was proclaimed a kingdom in 1861.

    Where the marks are

    • Division of Italy into states (1 mark)
    • Mazzini and Young Italy (1 mark)
    • Sardinia-Piedmont takes the lead (1 mark)
    • Cavour's alliance and the 1859 victory (1 mark)
    • Garibaldi's campaign and 1861 proclamation (1 mark)

    Open Q7(b) on its own page

  8. Q8 · 4 marks · Case-basedCompetency-basedNationalism in India

    Read the given source carefully and answer the questions that follow:
    Quit India Movement
    The failure of the Cripps Mission and the effects of World War II created widespread discontentment in India. This led Gandhiji to launch a movement calling for complete withdrawal of the British from India. The Congress Working Committee, in its meeting in Wardha on 14 July 1942, passed the historic 'Quit India' resolution demanding the immediate transfer of power to Indians and quit India. On 8th August 1942 in Bombay, the All India Congress Committee endorsed the resolution which called for a non-violent mass struggle on the widest possible scale throughout the country. It was on this occasion that Gandhiji delivered the famous 'Do or Die' speech. The call for 'Quit India' almost brought the state machinery to a standstill in large parts of the country as people voluntarily threw themselves into the thick of the movement. People observed hartals, and demonstrations and processions were accompanied by national songs and slogans. The movement was truly a mass movement which brought into its ambit thousands of ordinary people, namely students, workers and peasants. It also saw the active participation of leaders, namely, Jayprakash Narayan, Aruna Asaf Ali and Ram Manohar Lohia and many women such as Matangini Hazra in Bengal, Kanaklata Barua in Assam and Rama Devi in Orissa. The British responded with much force, yet it took more than a year to suppress the movement.

    1. 8.1

      How did the failure of the Cripps Mission contribute to the launch of the Quit India Movement?

      1 mark
    2. 8.2

      Why was Gandhiji's call for 'the Quit India' considered historic?

      1 mark
    3. 8.3

      Explain the role of women in making the Quit India Movement more inclusive.

      2 marks
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. (i) The Cripps Mission failed to satisfy Indians. This, along with the effects of World War II, created widespread discontent, which led Gandhiji to launch a movement demanding complete British withdrawal.

      1 mark

    2. (ii) The Congress Working Committee passed the 'Quit India' resolution at Wardha on 14 July 1942, demanding immediate transfer of power. At Bombay on 8 August 1942 Gandhiji gave the 'Do or Die' speech and called for a non-violent mass struggle on the widest scale.

      1 mark

    3. (iii) Women leaders such as Aruna Asaf Ali, Matangini Hazra in Bengal, Kanaklata Barua in Assam and Rama Devi in Orissa took an active part in the movement.

      1 mark

    4. (iii) Women joined hartals, demonstrations and processions in large numbers with national songs and slogans, making the movement a truly mass movement.

      1 mark

    Answer: (i) Failure of Cripps Mission caused discontent leading to the movement; (ii) it demanded immediate transfer of power and gave the 'Do or Die' call; (iii) women leaders and masses took part actively.

    Where the marks are

    • Cripps Mission failure and discontent (1 mark)
    • Why Quit India was historic (1 mark)
    • Women leaders' participation (1 mark)
    • Women in hartals and processions (1 mark)

    Open Q8 on its own page

  9. Q9 · 2 marks · Map workNationalism in India

    (Map-Skill Based Question) Two places 'A' and 'B' have been marked on the given political outline map of India. Identify them with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them:

    1. A.

      The place where Gandhiji broke the Salt Law.

      1 mark
    2. B.

      The place where the session of Indian National Congress was held.

      1 mark

    Figure in the paper: Political outline map of India with two marked points labelled 'A' and 'B', with lines drawn near them on which the names are to be written. Point A is on the western coast of India in Gujarat; point B is in the eastern part of the country, in the north-east of the Indian plains (West Bengal/Bihar region). See it in the official paper.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. A: Dandi, in Gujarat on the western coast, where Gandhiji broke the Salt Law in 1930.

      1 mark

    2. B: Calcutta (Kolkata), in eastern India, where the Congress session of 1920 was held.

      1 mark

    Answer: A - Dandi; B - Calcutta (Kolkata)

    Where the marks are

    • A identified as Dandi (1 mark)
    • B identified as Calcutta (1 mark)

    Open Q9 on its own page

Section B

Geography, 20 marks. MCQ 10-15 (1 mark); VSA 16 (2 marks); LA 17 (5 marks, internal choice); CBQ 18 (4 marks); map-based 19 (3 marks). VI alternative for 19.

  1. Q10 · 1 mark · MCQCompetency-basedResources and Development

    Read the given infographics carefully and choose the correct option that identifies the soil described.

    (1) Sandy in texture → (2) Red to brown in colour → (3) Soil lacks humus due to dry climate

    1. (A)Laterite soil
    2. (B)Forest soil
    3. (C)Arid soil
    4. (D)Black soil

    Figure in the paper: A three-box infographic flow chart linked by arrows. Box (1): 'Sandy in texture'; box (2): 'Red to brown in colour'; box (3): 'Soil lacks humus due to dry climate'. See it in the official paper.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. Sandy, red to brown soil lacking humus due to a dry climate is arid soil, found in Rajasthan.

      1 mark

    Answer: Arid soil, option (C)

    Where the marks are

    • Identifies arid soil (1 mark)

  2. Q11 · 1 mark · MCQAgriculture

    In which of the following regions did the "Beej-Bachao Andolan" of farmers begin?

    1. (A)Kumaon
    2. (B)Tehri
    3. (C)Almora
    4. (D)Chamoli
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. The Beej Bachao Andolan, which saved traditional seeds, began in the Tehri region of Uttarakhand.

      1 mark

    Answer: Tehri, option (B)

    Where the marks are

    • Names Tehri (1 mark)

  3. Q12 · 1 mark · MCQForest and Wildlife Resources

    Match Column – I with Column – II and choose the correct option:

    Column – I (National Park)Column – II (States)
    a. Corbetti. Rajasthan
    b. Sunderbanii. Uttarakhand
    c. Sariskaiii. Kerala
    d. Periyariv. West Bengal
    1. (A)a–ii, b–i, c–iv, d–iii
    2. (B)a–i, b–iii, c–ii, d–iv
    3. (C)a–iv, b–ii, c–iii, d–i
    4. (D)a–ii, b–iv, c–i, d–iii
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. Corbett is in Uttarakhand, Sunderban in West Bengal, Sariska in Rajasthan and Periyar in Kerala, giving a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii.

      1 mark

    Answer: a–ii, b–iv, c–i, d–iii, option (D)

    Where the marks are

    • Correct matching (1 mark)

  4. Q13 · 1 mark · MCQMinerals and Energy Resources

    Choose the correct option to fill in the blank:

    1. (A)Non-metallic
    2. (B)Metallic
    3. (C)Precious
    4. (D)Energy

    Figure in the paper: A tree diagram titled 'Minerals' branching into three boxes: 'Ferrous' (with example Cobalt below), 'Non-Ferrous' (with example Lead below), and a box with a blank '---?---' (with example Sulphur below). See it in the official paper.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. Minerals are classified as metallic (ferrous, non-ferrous) and non-metallic. Sulphur is a non-metallic mineral.

      1 mark

    Answer: Non-metallic, option (A)

    Where the marks are

    • Identifies non-metallic (1 mark)

  5. Q14 · 1 mark · MCQResources and Development

    In which of the following categories of 'land-use' has India registered an increase?

    1. (A)Permanent pasture
    2. (B)Unsuitable for agriculture
    3. (C)Barren
    4. (D)Forest
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. Among the land-use categories, forest area in India has increased over time, while pasture has declined.

      1 mark

    Answer: Forest, option (D)

    Where the marks are

    • Chooses forest (1 mark)

  6. Q15 · 1 mark · MCQAgriculture

    Which one of the following crops grows well in hot and humid climate?

    1. (A)Sugarcane
    2. (B)Peas
    3. (C)Wheat
    4. (D)Gram
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. Sugarcane is a tropical crop needing hot, humid weather. Peas, wheat and gram are rabi crops needing a cool climate.

      1 mark

    Answer: Sugarcane, option (A)

    Where the marks are

    • Chooses sugarcane (1 mark)

  7. Q16 · 2 marks · Very short answerCompetency-basedAgriculture

    If every farmer in India follows modern farming practices, explain any two positive changes this could bring to villages.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. Agricultural productivity would rise, because modern methods use water, seeds and fertilisers optimally, giving higher yields.

      1 mark

    2. Villagers' income and economic status would improve and more employment would be created in farming and related activities.

      1 mark

    Answer: Higher productivity with optimum resource use, and better incomes with more employment in villages.

    Where the marks are

    • First change explained (1 mark)
    • Second change explained (1 mark)

    Open Q16 on its own page

  8. Answer one of these 2 alternatives.

    Q17(a) · 5 marks · Long answerMinerals and Energy Resources

    Examine the role of petroleum as an important source of energy and describe its distribution in India. (3 + 2 = 5)

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. Petroleum is the major energy source after coal and provides fuel for heat and lighting.

      1 mark

    2. It supplies lubricants for machinery.

      1 mark

    3. It is the raw material for synthetic textiles, fertilisers and many chemical industries.

      1 mark

    4. Distribution: the major producing areas are Mumbai High, Gujarat and Assam.

      1 mark

    5. Ankleshwar is Gujarat's most important field. Assam is the oldest oil-producing state, with fields at Digboi, Naharkatiya and Moran-Hugrijan.

      1 mark

    Answer: Petroleum gives fuel, lubricants and industrial raw material. It is produced mainly at Mumbai High, Gujarat (Ankleshwar) and Assam (Digboi, Naharkatiya, Moran-Hugrijan).

    Where the marks are

    • Fuel for heat and lighting (1 mark)
    • Lubricants (1 mark)
    • Industrial raw material (1 mark)
    • Major producing areas (1 mark)
    • Specific fields (1 mark)

    Open Q17(a) on its own page

    OR

    Q17(b) · 5 marks · Long answerMinerals and Energy Resources

    Examine the role of coal as an important energy resource and describe its distribution in India. (3 + 2 = 5)

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. Coal is India's most abundant fossil fuel and provides a large part of the nation's energy needs.

      1 mark

    2. It is used for power generation.

      1 mark

    3. It supplies energy to industry and for domestic needs, and India depends heavily on it for commercial energy.

      1 mark

    4. Distribution: lignite is found at Neyveli in Tamil Nadu. Gondwana coal is found in the Damodar valley (Jharia, Raniganj, Bokaro).

      1 mark

    5. Coal is also found in the Godavari, Mahanadi, Son and Wardha valleys. Tertiary coal occurs in Meghalaya, Assam, Arunachal Pradesh and Nagaland.

      1 mark

    Answer: Coal is the most abundant fossil fuel, used for power, industry and homes. It is found in the Damodar valley, other river valleys, Neyveli (lignite) and the north-eastern states.

    Where the marks are

    • Abundant fossil fuel (1 mark)
    • Power generation (1 mark)
    • Industry and domestic use (1 mark)
    • Lignite and Gondwana coal areas (1 mark)
    • Other valleys and Tertiary coal (1 mark)

    Open Q17(b) on its own page

  9. Q18 · 4 marks · Case-basedCompetency-basedWater Resources

    Read the given source and answer the questions that follow:
    Sardar Sarovar Project
    Sardar Sarovar Dam has been built over the Narmada river in Gujarat. This is one of the largest water resources projects of India covering four states – Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Rajasthan. The Sardar Sarovar Project would meet the requirement of water in drought prone and desert areas. Sardar Sarovar Project will provide irrigation facilities to 18.45 lakh hectare of land, covering 3112 villages in 15 districts of Gujarat. It will also irrigate 2,46,000 hectare of land in the strategic desert districts of Barmer and Jalore in Rajasthan and 37,500 hectare in the tribal hilly tract of Maharashtra through lift. About 75% of the command area in Gujarat is drought prone while entire command in Rajasthan is drought prone. Assured water supply will soon make this area drought proof.

    1. 18.1

      Why is Sardar Sarovar Project considered important for Gujarat?

      1 mark
    2. 18.2

      Why is Sardar Sarovar Project designed to cover four states?

      1 mark
    3. 18.3

      In what ways does this project promote sustainability?

      2 marks
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. (i) It provides irrigation to 18.45 lakh hectare of land covering 3112 villages in 15 districts of Gujarat, and 75% of Gujarat's command area is drought prone.

      1 mark

    2. (ii) It is designed to meet the water needs of drought-prone and desert areas in Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Rajasthan, and to irrigate parts of Gujarat, Rajasthan and Maharashtra.

      1 mark

    3. (iii) It supplies drinking water to drought-prone areas and irrigates large farmland, ensuring food security.

      1 mark

    4. (iii) It also generates clean, renewable hydroelectricity and recharges groundwater, supporting sustainable water management.

      1 mark

    Answer: (i) Irrigates 18.45 lakh ha in Gujarat; (ii) to supply water to the drought-prone and desert areas of the four states; (iii) drinking water, food security, renewable energy and groundwater recharge.

    Where the marks are

    • Importance for Gujarat (1 mark)
    • Reason for covering four states (1 mark)
    • First sustainability point (1 mark)
    • Second sustainability point (1 mark)

    Open Q18 on its own page

  10. Q19 · 3 marks · Map workLifelines of National Economy

    (Map-Skill Based Question) On the same outline map of India given for Q. No. 9, locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols:

    1. (i)

      The major dam constructed on the Chenab river

      1 mark
    2. (ii)

      Nuclear power plant in Maharashtra

      1 mark
    3. (iii)

      Software Technology Park in Tamil Nadu

      1 mark
    4. (iv)

      International Airport in Punjab

      1 mark

    Figure in the paper: Political outline map of India on which the student locates and labels any three of the four listed features using suitable symbols (no features are pre-marked). See it in the official paper.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. (i) Salal Dam on the Chenab river in Jammu and Kashmir (the sub-part is for any three).

      1 mark

    2. (ii) Tarapur nuclear power plant, north of Mumbai in Maharashtra, and (iii) Chennai software technology park on the Tamil Nadu coast.

      1 mark

    3. (iv) Amritsar international airport in Punjab. Mark any three correctly with symbols and labels.

      1 mark

    Answer: (i) Salal; (ii) Tarapur; (iii) Chennai; (iv) Amritsar (any three)

    Where the marks are

    • Each correctly located and labelled feature (1 mark each, any three)

    Open Q19 on its own page

Section C

Political Science, 20 marks. MCQ/AR 20-23 (1 mark); VSA 24-25 (2 marks); SA 26 (3 marks); LA 27 (5 marks, internal choice); CBQ 28 (4 marks). VI alternative for 21.

  1. Q20 · 1 mark · Assertion-reasonCompetency-basedPower-sharing

    Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option:
    Assertion (A): The civil war in Sri Lanka resulted due to failure of political accommodation of ethnicity.
    Reason (R): The distrust between the Sinhala and Tamil communities turned into widespread conflict in Sri Lanka.

    1. (A)Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
    2. (B)Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
    3. (C)(A) is true, but (R) is false.
    4. (D)(A) is false, but (R) is true.
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. Sri Lanka's majoritarian policies ignored Tamil demands, so distrust between Sinhala and Tamils grew into civil war. Both statements are true and (R) explains (A).

      1 mark

    Answer: Option (A)

    Where the marks are

    • Both true and (R) explains (A) (1 mark)

  2. Q21 · 1 mark · MCQCompetency-basedOutcomes of Democracy

    Look at the given picture carefully and choose the most appropriate option. Which of the following is a strength of democracy highlighted in the cartoon?

    1. (A)Avoidance of social conflicts.
    2. (B)Quick decision-making
    3. (C)Concentration of power with one
    4. (D)Thinking accommodation of various demands.

    Figure in the paper: A cartoon showing a worried man seated on a rock labelled 'DEMOCRACY', with stones being hurled at him from all directions. The stones carry labels such as 'To settle the language issue', 'Student demands', 'To create a separate state', 'To get more D.A.' and 'To protest against police excesses'. The man is shown under pressure from many demands at once. See it in the official paper.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. The cartoon shows many different demands being put to democracy. Democracy's strength is that it accommodates these varied demands.

      1 mark

    Answer: Thinking accommodation of various demands, option (D)

    Where the marks are

    • Chooses accommodation of demands (1 mark)

  3. Q22 · 1 mark · MCQPolitical Parties

    Find the odd one out from the following:

    1. (A)Communist Party of India (M) & Bharatiya Janata Party
    2. (B)Rashtriya Janata Dal & Janata Dal
    3. (C)Nationalist Congress Party & Shiv Sena
    4. (D)United Democratic Party & National People's Party
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. CPI(M) is a national party and BJP is a national party, whereas the other pairs are state parties (RJD, Janata Dal, NCP, Shiv Sena, UDP, NPP). The scheme's key is (A).

      1 mark

    Answer: Option (A)

    Where the marks are

    • Selects the odd pair (1 mark)

  4. Q23 · 1 mark · MCQFederalism

    Read the given statements regarding decentralisation in India and choose the correct option:
    i. Rural local government is known as Panchayati Raj.
    ii. Each village or group of villages have Gram Panchayat.
    iii. Panch and Sarpanch of villages are selected by Election Commission.
    iv. Panchayat works under the supervision of Gram Sabha.

    1. (A)only i, iii and iv are correct.
    2. (B)only i, ii and iv are correct.
    3. (C)only ii, iii and iv are correct.
    4. (D)only i, ii and iii are correct.
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. Statements i, ii and iv are correct. Statement iii is wrong because Panch and Sarpanch are elected by the villagers, not selected by the Election Commission.

      1 mark

    Answer: Only i, ii and iv are correct, option (B)

    Where the marks are

    • Rejects (iii) and chooses i, ii, iv (1 mark)

  5. Q24 · 2 marks · Very short answerDevelopment

    Suggest any two ways to promote Women's Entrepreneurship in the economy.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. Provide easy loans at low interest, so that women have the capital to start businesses.

      1 mark

    2. Provide vocational and skill training and women-focused start-up schemes, with subsidies and tax benefits, to help women run and grow businesses.

      1 mark

    Answer: Easy low-interest loans; vocational training and women-focused schemes with subsidies.

    Where the marks are

    • First way explained (1 mark)
    • Second way explained (1 mark)

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  6. Q25 · 2 marks · Very short answerOutcomes of Democracy

    Differentiate between democracy and dictatorship.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. In a democracy people elect their leaders and power lies with the people; in a dictatorship people have no role in choosing the ruler and power lies with one person or a small group.

      1 mark

    2. In a democracy the government is accountable to citizens, free and fair elections are held regularly, and people enjoy rights and freedoms; in a dictatorship the government is not accountable, elections are absent or not free and fair, and rights are denied.

      1 mark

    Answer: Democracy: people elect leaders, accountable government, rights. Dictatorship: one person or group rules, unaccountable, no rights.

    Where the marks are

    • First difference (1 mark)
    • Second difference (1 mark)

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  7. Q26 · 3 marks · Short answerFederalism

    How does the Indian Constitution define the distribution of powers between the centre and the states? Explain with examples.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. The Constitution gives a three-fold distribution of legislative powers through three lists. The Union List has subjects of national importance such as defence, foreign affairs, banking, communications and currency, and only the Union can make laws on them.

      1 mark

    2. The State List has subjects of state and local importance such as police, trade, commerce and agriculture, and the states make laws on them.

      1 mark

    3. The Concurrent List has subjects of common interest such as education, forests, trade unions, marriage and adoption. Both governments can legislate, and in a conflict the Union law prevails. Residuary subjects, such as computer software, go to the Union.

      1 mark

    Answer: Powers are divided through the Union, State and Concurrent Lists, with residuary powers given to the Union.

    Where the marks are

    • Union List with examples (1 mark)
    • State List with examples (1 mark)
    • Concurrent List and residuary powers (1 mark)

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  8. Answer one of these 2 alternatives.

    Q27(a) · 5 marks · Long answerPolitical Parties

    Examine the role of political parties in a democracy.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. Parties contest elections. Most candidates are put up by parties, and voters choose among their different policies and programmes.

      1 mark

    2. Parties reduce many opinions into a few basic positions and play a decisive role in making laws.

      1 mark

    3. Parties form and run governments, and big policy decisions are taken by the political executive drawn from them.

      1 mark

    4. Parties that lose play the opposition role by voicing different views and criticising government failures and wrong policies.

      1 mark

    5. Parties shape public opinion and launch movements on people's problems. They also give citizens access to government machinery and welfare schemes.

      1 mark

    Answer: Parties contest elections, make laws, form governments, act as opposition, shape opinion and connect people to welfare schemes.

    Where the marks are

    • Contesting elections and offering policies (1 mark)
    • Law making and reducing opinions to basic positions (1 mark)
    • Forming and running government (1 mark)
    • Opposition role (1 mark)
    • Shaping opinion and giving access to schemes (1 mark)

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    OR

    Q27(b) · 5 marks · Long answerPolitical Parties

    Examine the need of the political parties in a democratic government.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. In large and complex societies, parties gather the many different views on issues and present them to the government in an organised way.

      1 mark

    2. Parties bring representatives together so that a responsible government can be formed and can govern.

      1 mark

    3. Without parties every candidate would be independent. No one could promise a major policy change, so voters could not hold anyone accountable and the government's usefulness would be uncertain.

      1 mark

    4. Parties are needed to support the government's policies or to restrain it as the opposition. They also make policies and justify or oppose them.

      1 mark

    5. Parties give people access to government machinery and welfare schemes, as a local party leader is easier to approach than an official.

      1 mark

    Answer: Political parties are needed to aggregate views, form responsible governments, make promises and policies, support or check the government, and link citizens with welfare schemes.

    Where the marks are

    • Gather and present diverse views to government (1 mark)
    • Bring representatives together to form a responsible government (1 mark)
    • Without parties, candidates are independent and no policy promise is possible (1 mark)
    • Support or restrain government; make and justify or oppose policies (1 mark)
    • Provide access to government machinery and welfare schemes (1 mark)

    Open Q27(b) on its own page

  9. Q28 · 4 marks · Case-basedCompetency-basedPower-sharing

    Read the given source carefully and answer the questions that follow:
    Power Sharing
    Power is shared among different organs of government, such as the legislature, executive and judiciary. Let us call this horizontal distribution of power because it allows different organs of government placed at the same level to exercise different powers. Such a separation ensures that none of the organs can exercise unlimited power. Each organ checks the others. This results in a balance of power among various institutions. Last year, we studied that in a democracy, even though ministers and government officials exercise power, they are responsible to the Parliament or State Assemblies. Similarly, although judges are appointed by the executive, they can check the functioning of executive or laws made by the legislatures. This arrangement is called a system of checks and balances.

    1. 28.1

      Explain the term 'Balance of Power'.

      1 mark
    2. 28.2

      Why is the judiciary considered independent in a democracy?

      1 mark
    3. 28.3

      How is power shared among different organs of government?

      2 marks
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. (i) Balance of power means no organ of government can exercise unlimited power, because each organ checks the others.

      1 mark

    2. (ii) Although judges are appointed by the executive, they can check the working of the executive and the laws made by the legislature. This shows the judiciary acts independently.

      1 mark

    3. (iii) Power is shared horizontally among three organs: the legislature, the executive and the judiciary. They are placed at the same level and exercise different powers.

      1 mark

    4. The legislature makes laws, the executive implements them, and the judiciary interprets laws and settles disputes.

      1 mark

    Answer: (i) No organ has unlimited power; each checks the others. (ii) Judges can check the executive and the legislature's laws. (iii) Legislature makes laws, executive implements them, judiciary interprets laws and resolves disputes.

    Where the marks are

    • Balance of power: no organ unlimited, each checks others (1 mark)
    • Judiciary independent as it can check executive and legislature (1 mark)
    • Three organs at the same level exercise different powers (1 mark)
    • Functions: make, implement, interpret laws (1 mark)

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Section D

Economics, 20 marks. MCQ 29-34 (1 mark); SA 35-37 (3 marks); LA 38 (5 marks, internal choice).

  1. Q29 · 1 mark · MCQCompetency-basedDevelopment

    Study the given data carefully and answer the question that follows:

    CountryIIIIIIIVVAY
    A9,50010,5009,8001,00010,200
    B5005005005004,800

    (Table: Monthly income of citizens in ₹)

    Identify the average monthly income of citizens in 'country A'.

    1. (A)8,200
    2. (B)9,000
    3. (C)1,000
    4. (D)9,020
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. Average = (9500 + 10500 + 9800 + 1000 + 10200) / 5 = 41000 / 5 = ₹8,200.

      1 mark

    Answer: ₹8,200, option (A)

    Where the marks are

    • Sums incomes and divides by 5 to get 8,200 (1 mark)

  2. Q30 · 1 mark · MCQSectors of the Indian Economy

    Identify the sector of the economy on the basis of ownership with the help of following information:

    • The government owns most of the assets.
    • Delivery of services in the hands of government.
    • Fair price shops is an example of it.
    1. (A)Private Sector
    2. (B)Public Sector
    3. (C)Joint Sector
    4. (D)Cooperative Sector
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. Government owns the assets and provides the services; fair price shops are a government service. This is the public sector.

      1 mark

    Answer: Public Sector, option (B)

    Where the marks are

    • Identifies public sector (1 mark)

  3. Q31 · 1 mark · MCQCompetency-basedMoney and Credit

    Read the given case and choose the correct option:
    Swapna, a small farmer grows groundnut on her three acres of land. She takes a loan from the moneylender to meet the expenses of cultivation but midway due to flood, crop fails and her debt increased. Again she has to take loan to manage crops.
    Suggest Swapna, which of the following sources of loan would be suitable for her.

    1. (A)Friends
    2. (B)Relatives
    3. (C)Moneylenders
    4. (D)Banks
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. Banks give loans at lower interest rates and under RBI supervision, unlike moneylenders who charge high interest and trap farmers in debt, so banks are suitable for Swapna.

      1 mark

    Answer: Banks, option (D)

    Where the marks are

    • Chooses banks with reason of lower interest (1 mark)

  4. Q32 · 1 mark · MCQGlobalisation and the Indian Economy

    The removal of barriers on foreign trade and investment by the Indian government has been called as:

    1. (A)Industrialisation
    2. (B)Nationalisation
    3. (C)Privatisation
    4. (D)Liberalisation
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. Removing barriers on foreign trade and investment is called liberalisation.

      1 mark

    Answer: Liberalisation, option (D)

    Where the marks are

    • Names liberalisation (1 mark)

  5. Q33 · 1 mark · MCQDevelopment

    Which of the following reports compare countries using health, education and per capita income?

    1. (A)Human Development Report
    2. (B)Global Trade Report
    3. (C)World Development Report
    4. (D)Economic Survey Report
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. The Human Development Report (UNDP) compares countries on health, education and per capita income.

      1 mark

    Answer: Human Development Report, option (A)

    Where the marks are

    • Chooses HDR (1 mark)

  6. Q34 · 1 mark · MCQDevelopment

    Choose the correct option to fill in the blank:
    Net attendance ratio is expressed as a ________ of total children in the age group of 6 – 10 years attending school.

    1. (A)Ratio
    2. (B)Percentage
    3. (C)Fraction
    4. (D)Index
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. Net attendance ratio is the total number of children of the age group 6-10 attending school, expressed as a percentage of all children in that age group.

      1 mark

    Answer: Percentage, option (B)

    Where the marks are

    • Chooses percentage (1 mark)

  7. Q35 · 3 marks · Short answerThe Making of a Global World

    "New technology has helped to connect the world." Justify the statement with suitable arguments.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. Transport technology has improved. Faster delivery over long distances at lower cost is possible, and containers cut port handling costs and speed up exports. Air transport costs have fallen, so larger volumes move by air.

      1 mark

    2. Telecommunication (telephone, mobile, fax) and satellite communication let people contact each other worldwide, get instant information and communicate from remote areas.

      1 mark

    3. The internet allows instant e-mail and voice-mail across the world at negligible cost. Information technology has also helped spread the production of services across countries.

      1 mark

    Answer: Better transport, telecommunications, satellites and the internet have lowered costs and speeded up trade and communication, connecting countries.

    Where the marks are

    • Transport improvements and containers lower cost and time (1 mark)
    • Telecom and satellite communication give instant contact (1 mark)
    • Internet and IT spread services production across countries (1 mark)

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  8. Q36 · 3 marks · Short answerMoney and Credit

    Explain the role of Reserve Bank of India in the Indian economy.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. The RBI issues currency notes on behalf of the central government. Under Indian law no other individual or organisation may issue currency, and no one can legally refuse a payment made in rupees.

      1 mark

    2. It supervises the formal sources of loans. It checks that banks keep a minimum cash balance out of their deposits, and banks must periodically report to it how much they lend, to whom and at what interest rate.

      1 mark

    3. It ensures banks lend not only to profit-making businesses and traders but also to small cultivators, small-scale industries and small borrowers.

      1 mark

    Answer: The RBI issues currency, supervises banks' functioning and their cash balances, and ensures loans reach small borrowers as well.

    Where the marks are

    • Issues currency; sole authority (1 mark)
    • Supervises banks, minimum cash balance, reporting of lending (1 mark)
    • Ensures loans to small borrowers and sectors (1 mark)

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  9. Q37 · 3 marks · Short answerDevelopment

    Analyse the issues that necessitate sustainable development for the future.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. The present model of development has damaged ecosystems and polluted natural resources such as air, water, land and soil.

      1 mark

    2. Depletion of natural resources threatens their availability for future generations, so even renewable resources must be used judiciously.

      1 mark

    3. Rapid industrialisation and greenhouse gas emissions cause global warming. Deforestation leads to extinction of many plant and animal species.

      1 mark

    Answer: Pollution, resource depletion, global warming and loss of species make sustainable development necessary for future generations.

    Where the marks are

    • Ecosystem damage and pollution of resources (1 mark)
    • Depletion threatens future availability; judicious use of even renewables (1 mark)
    • Global warming from industrialisation and emissions; deforestation and species loss (1 mark)

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  10. Answer one of these 2 alternatives.

    Q38(a) · 5 marks · Long answerSectors of the Indian Economy

    How are primary sectors different from secondary sectors? Explain with examples.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. Primary sector: goods are produced by directly using natural resources. Secondary sector: natural products are changed into other forms through manufacturing.

      1 mark

    2. The primary sector produces raw materials, while the secondary sector uses the primary sector's produce to make manufactured goods.

      1 mark

    3. Primary activities include agriculture, dairy, fishing and forestry. Secondary activities take place in a workshop or factory.

      1 mark

    4. The primary sector is also called the agriculture and related sector. The secondary sector is called the industrial sector.

      1 mark

    5. The primary sector forms the basis of the rural economy, the secondary sector of the urban economy. Examples: farming, fishing and mining (primary); cotton to cloth and sugarcane to sugar (secondary).

      1 mark

    Answer: The primary sector extracts raw materials from nature (farming, fishing, mining), while the secondary sector manufactures goods from them (cotton to cloth, sugarcane to sugar).

    Where the marks are

    • Natural resources vs manufacturing (1 mark)
    • Raw material vs manufactured goods (1 mark)
    • Activities/place: farm, dairy, fishing vs factory (1 mark)
    • Agriculture sector vs industrial sector (1 mark)
    • Rural vs urban basis, with examples (1 mark)

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    OR

    Q38(b) · 5 marks · Long answerSectors of the Indian Economy

    How are organized sectors different from unorganized sectors? Explain with examples.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution

    1. Organised sector: terms of employment are regular and workers enjoy job security. Unorganised sector: terms are irregular and there is no job security.

      1 mark

    2. The organised sector is governed by government rules such as the Factories Act and the Minimum Wages Act. The unorganised sector is largely outside government control; rules exist but are not followed.

      1 mark

    3. Organised workers have fixed working hours and are paid overtime for extra work. Unorganised workers have no fixed hours and no overtime pay.

      1 mark

    4. Organised workers get paid leave, provident fund, gratuity, medical benefits and pension after retirement. Unorganised workers get none of these.

      1 mark

    5. Examples: railways and post office (organised); street vendors, domestic help and agricultural labourers (unorganised).

      1 mark

    Answer: The organised sector has regular jobs, legal protection and benefits (e.g. railways), while the unorganised sector has irregular jobs and no protection or benefits (e.g. street vendors).

    Where the marks are

    • Regular vs irregular employment, security (1 mark)
    • Government regulation vs largely outside control (1 mark)
    • Fixed hours and overtime vs none (1 mark)
    • Leave, PF, gratuity, medical, pension vs none (1 mark)
    • Examples of both (1 mark)

    Open Q38(b) on its own page

Source: official question paper, cbse.gov.in. Chapter tags and solutions are ours. Spotted a transcription error? Write tosupport@questionbuddy.in.