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Social ScienceCBSE Class 10 · Board exam 2026 (session 2025-26)

CBSE Class 10 Social Science: 2026 board paper, set 32/2/1

The question paper set in the CBSE Class 10 board exam of 2026, as printed: 38 questions for 80 marks, in sections, with each OR choice shown as an alternative. Try each question first, then open our solution.

Every question here has our step-by-step solution, split into the steps that earn marks. Each one was checked by an independent re-solve from the question paper.

Source: official question paper from cbse.gov.in: https://www.cbse.gov.in/cbsenew/question-paper/2026/X/Social_Science.zip (a zip; this paper is the file 32_2_1_Social Science.pdf). Questions are transcribed from that PDF; figures are described in words, so check the official paper for them. Questions printed only for visually impaired candidates are left out (3).

How the paper is set

SectionQuestionsWhat it has
A1-10History (20 marks): MCQs 1-5 and 1-mark VI alternative of Q5; 7 and 8 have internal choice; Q9 source-based; Q10 map-based (2 marks)
B11-18Geography (20 marks): MCQs 11-13; 14, 16 have internal choice; Q17 source-based; Q18 map-based (3 marks)
C19-27Political Science (20 marks): MCQs 19-22 (19-20 and 21-22 MCQ type); 26 has internal choice; Q27 source-based
D28-38Economics (20 marks): MCQs 28-34 (28-29 assertion-reason type); 38 has internal choice

Instructions in brief: All 38 questions compulsory; no overall choice, internal choice in a few questions (attempt only one alternative); VI candidates attempt separate questions in lieu of Q5, Q10 and Q18; answers must be divided into four sections as per question paper.

Section A

History (20 marks): MCQs 1-5 and 1-mark VI alternative of Q5; 7 and 8 have internal choice; Q9 source-based; Q10 map-based (2 marks)

  1. Q1 · 1 mark · MCQThe Making of a Global World

    Which country was the most affected by the potato famine during 1845 – 1849?

    1. (A)France
    2. (B)United States of America
    3. (C)Ireland
    4. (D)Sweden
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. The potato blight of 1845–49 destroyed Ireland's staple crop, causing famine and mass death and emigration. Option (C) Ireland.

      1 mark

    Answer: (C) Ireland

    Where the marks are

    • Identifies Ireland (1 mark)
  2. Q2 · 1 mark · MCQPrint Culture and the Modern World

    Arrange the following historical events in chronological order and choose the correct option:
    I. Publication of Bengal Gazette
    II. Publication of Diamond Sutra
    III. Publication of Bible by Johann Gutenberg
    IV. Return of Marco Polo to Italy from China

    1. (A)I, II, III, IV
    2. (B)IV, III, II, I
    3. (C)II, IV, I, III
    4. (D)II, IV, III, I
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. Diamond Sutra, printed in China in 868 CE, comes first. Marco Polo returned to Italy in 1295. Gutenberg's Bible was printed around 1450s. The Bengal Gazette began in 1780. Order: II, IV, III, I, which is option (D).

      1 mark

    Answer: (D) II, IV, III, I

    Where the marks are

    • Correct chronological order II, IV, III, I (1 mark)
  3. Q3 · 1 mark · Assertion-reasonCompetency-basedThe Rise of Nationalism in Europe

    Two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are given below. Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option.
    Assertion (A): Giuseppe Mazzini was a revolutionary from Italy.
    Reason (R): He founded underground organisations.

    1. (A)Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
    2. (B)Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
    3. (C)Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
    4. (D)Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. Mazzini was an Italian revolutionary, so A is true. He founded Young Italy in Marseilles and Young Europe in Berne, so R is true. R explains why he is called a revolutionary, so R correctly explains A. Option (A).

      1 mark

    Answer: (A)

    Where the marks are

    • A and R both true, and R explains A (1 mark)
  4. Q4 · 1 mark · MCQNationalism in India

    Between which two leaders was the Poona Pact signed in 1932?

    1. (A)Bhimrao Ambedkar and Mahatma Gandhi
    2. (B)Bhimrao Ambedkar and Jawaharlal Nehru
    3. (C)Mahatma Gandhi and Lord Irwin
    4. (D)Mahatma Gandhi and M.A. Jinnah
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. The Poona Pact (1932) was signed between B. R. Ambedkar and Mahatma Gandhi. It gave reserved seats to the Depressed Classes in the central legislature. Option (A).

      1 mark

    Answer: (A) Bhimrao Ambedkar and Mahatma Gandhi

    Where the marks are

    • Names Ambedkar and Gandhi (1 mark)
  5. Q5(a) · 1 mark · MCQThe Rise of Nationalism in Europe

    Whom does this picture represent? Choose the correct option.

    1. (A)Marianne
    2. (B)Britannia
    3. (C)Germania
    4. (D)Columbia

    Figure in the paper: Black-and-white painting of a woman standing on a rocky outlook, wearing a laurel-type crown, a long flowing cloak and a richly decorated gown, with a sword held at her side; a town and water are visible in the background. See it in the official paper.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. The picture shows a woman with a crown of oak leaves and a sword, standing in a landscape. This is Germania, the allegory of the German nation. Option (C).

      1 mark

    Answer: (C) Germania

    Where the marks are

    • Identifies Germania (1 mark)
  6. Q6 · 1 mark · MCQThe Making of a Global World

    Which of the following deadly disease spread in America through Portugal and Spain in mid-sixteenth century?

    1. (A)Yellow fever
    2. (B)Smallpox
    3. (C)Malaria
    4. (D)Cholera
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. Smallpox was carried to America by Portuguese and Spanish conquerors in the mid-16th century. It killed millions of native people who had no immunity. Option (B).

      1 mark

    Answer: (B) Smallpox

    Where the marks are

    • Identifies smallpox (1 mark)
  7. Answer one of these 2 alternatives.

    Q7(a) · 3 marks · Short answerThe Rise of Nationalism in Europe

    Analyse the role of language in the development of nationalism in Poland during the nineteenth century.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. After Russia took over Poland, the Polish language was forcibly removed from schools and Russian was imposed everywhere.

      1 mark
    2. Many Polish priests made the language a weapon of national resistance. The Church used Polish in its gatherings and in all religious instruction.

      1 mark
    3. Polish came to be seen as a symbol of the struggle against Russian dominance. Using it kept national feeling alive and united the Poles.

      1 mark

    Answer: Language became a weapon of resistance and a symbol of Polish identity against Russian rule.

    Where the marks are

    • Russian imposed and Polish removed from schools (1 mark)
    • Priests and the Church used Polish as resistance (1 mark)
    • Polish became a symbol of the struggle against Russia (1 mark)

    Open Q7(a) on its own page

    OR

    Q7(b) · 3 marks · Short answerThe Rise of Nationalism in Europe

    Analyse the main provisions of the Treaty of Vienna of 1815.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. The Bourbon dynasty was restored to power in France, and monarchy was re-established there.

      1 mark
    2. France lost the territories it had annexed under Napoleon. A set of states was set up on France's borders to check future French expansion, including the Kingdom of the Netherlands in the north, which included Belgium.

      1 mark
    3. Genoa was added to Piedmont in the south. Prussia received new territories on its western frontier and part of Saxony. Austria got control of northern Italy. Russia was given part of Poland.

      1 mark

    Answer: Bourbon restoration, containment of France by new border states, and territorial gains for Prussia, Austria and Russia.

    Where the marks are

    • Bourbon monarchy restored in France (1 mark)
    • France lost territories and buffer states were created (1 mark)
    • Territorial gains for Prussia, Austria, Russia and Piedmont (1 mark)

    Open Q7(b) on its own page

  8. Answer one of these 2 alternatives.

    Q8(a) · 5 marks · Long answerNationalism in India

    "Women played an important role during the Civil Disobedience Movement." Support the statement with appropriate arguments.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. During Gandhiji's Salt March, thousands of women came out of their homes to listen to him.

      1 mark
    2. They took part in protest marches and in the manufacture of salt.

      1 mark
    3. They boycotted foreign cloth and picketed liquor shops.

      1 mark
    4. Many women, from both urban and rural areas, went to jail.

      1 mark
    5. They began to see service to the nation as a sacred duty, which shows their important role.

      1 mark

    Answer: Women joined marches, made salt, boycotted foreign cloth, picketed liquor shops and went to jail.

    Where the marks are

    • Women came out of their homes in large numbers (1 mark)
    • Took part in marches and salt making (1 mark)
    • Boycott of foreign cloth and picketing of liquor shops (1 mark)
    • Went to jail (1 mark)
    • Saw national service as a sacred duty (1 mark)

    Open Q8(a) on its own page

    OR

    Q8(b) · 5 marks · Long answerNationalism in India

    "The revival of Indian folklore strengthened nationalism in India." Support the statement with appropriate arguments.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. In the late nineteenth century, nationalists felt that folklore had to be revived to resist British cultural domination and to show the real Indian culture.

      1 mark
    2. Nationalists began recording folk tales sung by bards and travelled from village to village collecting folk songs and legends.

      1 mark
    3. They believed these stories gave a true picture of traditional culture, and preserving them was necessary to discover a national identity and restore pride in the past.

      1 mark
    4. Rabindranath Tagore led the movement for folk revival in Bengal, collecting ballads, nursery rhymes and myths.

      1 mark
    5. In Madras, Natesa Sastri published the four-volume 'The Folklore of Southern India'. Folklore was seen as national literature and the most trustworthy expression of people's thoughts.

      1 mark

    Answer: Folklore revival built national identity and pride, with Tagore and Natesa Sastri as examples.

    Where the marks are

    • Revival needed to resist cultural domination (1 mark)
    • Folk tales and songs collected by nationalists (1 mark)
    • Gave true picture of culture and national identity (1 mark)
    • Tagore in Bengal (1 mark)
    • Natesa Sastri in Madras and folklore as national literature (1 mark)

    Open Q8(b) on its own page

  9. Q9 · 4 marks · Case-basedCompetency-basedPrint Culture and the Modern World

    Read the given source carefully and answer the questions that follow:
    Print and Censorship

    After the revolt of 1857, the attitude of the colonial government towards freedom of the press changed. Enraged Englishmen demanded a clamp down on the 'native' press. As vernacular newspapers became assertively nationalist, the colonial government began debating measures of stringent control. In 1878, the Vernacular Press Act was passed, modelled on the Irish Press Laws. It provided the government with extensive rights to censor reports and editorials in the vernacular press. From now on the government kept regular track of the vernacular newspapers published in different provinces. When a report was judged as seditious, the newspaper was warned, and if the warning was ignored, the press was liable to be seized and the printing machinery confiscated.

    1. (9.1)

      Which Act was the inspiration of the 'Vernacular Press Act'?

      1 mark
    2. (9.2)

      Why was the colonial government not in favour of freedom of the press?

      1 mark
    3. (9.3)

      Which two powers were given by the Vernacular Press Act to the colonial government?

      2 marks
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. (9.1) The Irish Press Laws.

      1 mark
    2. (9.2) Vernacular newspapers had become assertively nationalist after 1857. The government feared the spread of nationalist and revolutionary ideas.

      1 mark
    3. (9.3) It gave the government the right to censor reports and editorials in the vernacular press.

      1 mark
    4. It also allowed the government to seize the press and confiscate printing machinery if a warning against a seditious report was ignored.

      1 mark

    Answer: (9.1) Irish Press Laws; (9.2) it feared nationalist ideas in the press; (9.3) power to censor reports and power to seize the press and confiscate its machinery

    Where the marks are

    • Irish Press Laws (1 mark)
    • Fear of nationalist ideas spreading (1 mark)
    • Power to censor reports and editorials (1 mark)
    • Power to seize the press and machinery (1 mark)

    Open Q9 on its own page

  10. Q10 · 2 marks · Map workNationalism in India

    Two places 'A' and 'B' have been marked on the given political outline map of India (page 27). Identify them with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them:

    1. A.

      The place where the session of the Indian National Congress was held in September 1920.

      1 mark
    2. B.

      The place where Mahatma Gandhi led the Peasant Movement against Indigo Cultivation.

      1 mark

    Figure in the paper: Political outline map of India (page 27) with two points marked: A, in the east of the country near the Bay of Bengal coast, and B, in the north of the Gangetic plain near the Nepal border. Each point has a long arrow pointing to it from the margin, with a blank line for writing the name. See it in the official paper.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. A: Calcutta (Kolkata), where the Congress session of September 1920 was held.

      1 mark
    2. B: Champaran in Bihar, where Gandhiji led the peasant movement against indigo cultivation.

      1 mark

    Answer: A: Calcutta (Kolkata); B: Champaran

    Where the marks are

    • A identified as Calcutta (1 mark)
    • B identified as Champaran (1 mark)

    Open Q10 on its own page

Section B

Geography (20 marks): MCQs 11-13; 14, 16 have internal choice; Q17 source-based; Q18 map-based (3 marks)

  1. Q11 · 1 mark · MCQWater Resources

    In which Indian state is 'Bamboo drip irrigation' system used?

    1. (A)Himachal Pradesh
    2. (B)Kerala
    3. (C)Rajasthan
    4. (D)Meghalaya
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. Bamboo drip irrigation is a 200-year-old system used in Meghalaya, where bamboo pipes carry water from hill springs to the plants. Option (D).

      1 mark

    Answer: (D) Meghalaya

    Where the marks are

    • Identifies Meghalaya (1 mark)
  2. Q12 · 1 mark · MCQMinerals and Energy Resources

    Choose the correct option to fill in the blank.
    The largest wind farm cluster in India is located between __________.

    1. (A)Nagercoil to Madurai
    2. (B)Jaipur to Jodhpur
    3. (C)Bokaro to Raniganj
    4. (D)Hazira to Jhabua
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. The largest wind farm cluster in India lies from Nagercoil to Madurai in Tamil Nadu. Option (A).

      1 mark

    Answer: (A) Nagercoil to Madurai

    Where the marks are

    • Nagercoil to Madurai (1 mark)
  3. Q13 · 1 mark · MCQAgriculture

    Identify the plantation crop from the following:

    1. (A)Wheat
    2. (B)Bajra
    3. (C)Rice
    4. (D)Rubber
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. Wheat, bajra and rice are food crops. Rubber is a plantation crop grown on a large estate. Option (D).

      1 mark

    Answer: (D) Rubber

    Where the marks are

    • Identifies rubber (1 mark)
  4. Answer one of these 2 alternatives.

    Q14(a) · 2 marks · Very short answerForest and Wildlife Resources

    Describe the role of communities in the conservation of forests in India.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. In India, forests are home to some traditional communities. In Sariska Tiger Reserve, villagers fought against mining by citing the Wildlife Protection Act. Five villages in Alwar district of Rajasthan have declared 1,200 hectares of forest as the 'Bhairodev Dakav Sonchuri' and made their own rules.

      1 mark
    2. Communities protect wildlife from outside interference. Movements such as Chipko, Beej Bachao Andolan and Navdanya have helped save forests.

      1 mark

    Answer: Communities protect forests through local rules and movements such as Chipko and Beej Bachao Andolan.

    Where the marks are

    • Forests as habitat of communities and the Alwar example (1 mark)
    • Protection from outsiders and role of movements (1 mark)

    Open Q14(a) on its own page

    OR

    Q14(b) · 2 marks · Very short answerForest and Wildlife Resources

    Describe any two steps taken by the Government of India to protect forests and wildlife.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. The Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act was implemented in 1972. A list of protected species was published and hunting was banned.

      1 mark
    2. Project Tiger was launched in 1973, and many tiger reserves were set up. In 1988, Odisha passed the first Joint Forest Management resolution.

      1 mark

    Answer: Wildlife Protection Act 1972 with protected species lists and a hunting ban, and Project Tiger 1973.

    Where the marks are

    • Wildlife Protection Act 1972 and hunting ban (1 mark)
    • Project Tiger or Joint Forest Management (1 mark)

    Open Q14(b) on its own page

  5. Q15 · 3 marks · Short answerResources and Development

    Explain any three main factors responsible for land degradation.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. Mining: after mining is over, sites are left open with deep scars and heaps of overburden. Deforestation due to mining also causes land degradation, as in Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh and Odisha.

      1 mark
    2. Overgrazing: in states such as Gujarat, Rajasthan, Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh, overgrazing is a main cause of land degradation.

      1 mark
    3. Over-irrigation: in Punjab, Haryana and western Uttar Pradesh, over-irrigation causes waterlogging, which raises soil salinity and alkalinity. Mineral processing, such as grinding limestone for cement, also releases dust which hinders water infiltration.

      1 mark

    Answer: Mining, overgrazing and over-irrigation (waterlogging, salinity)

    Where the marks are

    • Mining and deforestation (1 mark)
    • Overgrazing (1 mark)
    • Over-irrigation, salinity or mineral processing dust (1 mark)

    Open Q15 on its own page

  6. Answer one of these 2 alternatives.

    Q16(a) · 5 marks · Long answerManufacturing Industries

    Explain the reasons why most of the Jute industries in India are located in West Bengal.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. Proximity of the jute-producing areas gives easy access to raw jute.

      1 mark
    2. Cheap and efficient water transport is available on the Hugli.

      1 mark
    3. A dense network of railways and roads helps movement of goods.

      1 mark
    4. There is plenty of water to process raw jute, and cheap labour is available from Bihar, Odisha and Uttar Pradesh.

      1 mark
    5. Kolkata is a large urban centre providing banking, insurance and port facilities for exporting jute goods.

      1 mark

    Answer: Nearness to raw jute, cheap water transport, rail and road network, water, cheap labour and Kolkata's port and banking facilities.

    Where the marks are

    • Raw material nearby (1 mark)
    • Cheap water transport (1 mark)
    • Rail and road network (1 mark)
    • Water and cheap labour (1 mark)
    • Kolkata port, banking and insurance (1 mark)

    Open Q16(a) on its own page

    OR

    Q16(b) · 5 marks · Long answerManufacturing Industries

    Explain the measures to reduce industrial pollution.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. Hot water and effluents should be treated before being discharged into water bodies. Primary treatment should be by mechanical means, secondary by biological processes, and tertiary by biological, chemical and physical processes.

      1 mark
    2. Industries should install electrostatic precipitators, scrubbers and gaseous pollutant separators in tall chimneys to reduce air pollution.

      1 mark
    3. Using oil and gas instead of coal in factories reduces smoke.

      1 mark
    4. Silencers should be fitted in generators, and machinery should be redesigned for energy efficiency and less noise. Noise-absorbing equipment should be used.

      1 mark
    5. Waste generation should be minimised, and green belts raised to keep the ecological balance. Regular monitoring and review should be ensured.

      1 mark

    Answer: Treat effluents, fit precipitators and scrubbers, use cleaner fuel, reduce noise, minimise waste and plant green belts.

    Where the marks are

    • Treatment of effluents before discharge (1 mark)
    • Precipitators and scrubbers for air pollution (1 mark)
    • Oil and gas instead of coal (1 mark)
    • Silencers and noise reduction (1 mark)
    • Waste minimisation, green belts and monitoring (1 mark)

    Open Q16(b) on its own page

  7. Q17 · 4 marks · Case-basedCompetency-basedAgriculture

    Read the given source carefully and answer the questions that follow:
    Cropping Pattern

    Rabi crops are sown in winter from October to December and harvested in summer from April to June. Kharif crops are grown with the onset of monsoon in different parts of the country and these are harvested in September-October. In between the rabi and the kharif seasons, there is a short season during the summer months known as the zaid season.

    1. (17.1)

      Rice cultivation is an example of which type of agricultural season?

      1 mark
    2. (17.2)

      Name any one crop which is harvested between April to June in India.

      1 mark
    3. (17.3)

      Mention any two zaid crops.

      2 marks
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. (17.1) Rice is a kharif crop.

      1 mark
    2. (17.2) Wheat, barley, peas, gram or mustard (any one rabi crop).

      1 mark
    3. (17.3) Watermelon and muskmelon (also cucumber and vegetables).

      2 marks

    Answer: (17.1) Kharif; (17.2) Wheat; (17.3) Watermelon and cucumber

    Where the marks are

    • Kharif (1 mark)
    • Any one rabi crop (1 mark)
    • Any two zaid crops (2 marks)

    Open Q17 on its own page

  8. Q18 · 3 marks · Map workLifelines of National Economy

    On the same outline map of India (page 27) given for question no. 10, locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols:

    1. (18.1)

      A major dam built on the Mahanadi river

      1 mark
    2. (18.2)

      A Software Technology Park located in Uttar Pradesh

      1 mark
    3. (18.3)

      A major sea port located in Tamil Nadu

      1 mark
    4. (18.4)

      Eastern-most terminal station of East-West Corridor of India

      1 mark

    Figure in the paper: Same political outline map of India as given for Q. 10 (page 27), with blank space for locating and labelling the features listed. See it in the official paper.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. (18.1) Hirakud Dam, in Odisha on the Mahanadi.

      1 mark
    2. (18.2) Noida, the Software Technology Park in Uttar Pradesh.

      1 mark
    3. (18.3) Tuticorin or Chennai, major sea ports in Tamil Nadu.

      1 mark
    4. (18.4) Silchar, in Assam, the eastern terminal of the East-West Corridor.

      1 mark

    Answer: Any three: Hirakud; Noida; Tuticorin/Chennai; Silchar

    Where the marks are

    • Each correctly located and labelled feature (1 mark each, any three)

    Open Q18 on its own page

Section C

Political Science (20 marks): MCQs 19-22 (19-20 and 21-22 MCQ type); 26 has internal choice; Q27 source-based

  1. Q19 · 1 mark · MCQPolitical Parties

    Read the following statements about the functions of political parties and choose the correct option:
    I. Political parties build public opinion.
    II. Political parties play the role of the opposition.
    III. Political parties present their programmes to the public.
    IV. Political parties make foreign policy.

    1. (A)Only I, II and III are correct.
    2. (B)Only II, III and IV are correct.
    3. (C)Only I, III and IV are correct.
    4. (D)Only I, II and IV are correct.
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. Parties shape public opinion, act as the opposition and present their programmes. Foreign policy is made by the government, not by parties as such, so IV is wrong. Option (A).

      1 mark

    Answer: (A) Only I, II and III are correct.

    Where the marks are

    • Selects I, II and III and rejects IV (1 mark)
  2. Q20 · 1 mark · MCQFederalism

    Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option:

    Column I (List)Column II (Subject)
    a. Union listi. Police
    b. State listii. Computer software
    c. Concurrent listiii. Adoption
    d. Residuary subjectsiv. Defence
    1. (A)a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
    2. (B)a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
    3. (C)a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii
    4. (D)a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. Union list: defence. State list: police. Concurrent list: adoption. Residuary: computer software. This gives a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii, option (C).

      1 mark

    Answer: (C) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii

    Where the marks are

    • Correct matching of all four (1 mark)
  3. Q21 · 1 mark · MCQPower-sharing

    In Sri Lanka, which one of the following changes to the 1956 law gave rise to the possibility of civil war?

    1. (A)Ensuring power sharing among all sections.
    2. (B)Declaring Sinhala as the official language.
    3. (C)Declaring Tamil as the official language.
    4. (D)Implementing a policy of preference for Sinhalese in government jobs.
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. The 1956 Act made Sinhala the only official language, ignoring Tamil. This created alienation among Tamils and led to civil war. The scheme also accepts the preference for Sinhalese in government jobs, so options (B) and (D) are both marked. The question wants the change to the 1956 law, so (B).

      1 mark

    Answer: (B) Declaring Sinhala as the official language

    Where the marks are

    • Sinhala as the only official language (1 mark)
  4. Q22 · 1 mark · MCQFederalism

    Which one of the following countries is an example of a 'coming together federation'?

    1. (A)India
    2. (B)Belgium
    3. (C)Spain
    4. (D)Australia
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. In a coming-together federation, independent states join to form a bigger unit, as in the USA, Switzerland and Australia. India, Belgium and Spain are holding-together or other types. Option (D).

      1 mark

    Answer: (D) Australia

    Where the marks are

    • Australia (1 mark)
  5. Q23 · 2 marks · Very short answerPolitical Parties

    Suggest any two reforms to strengthen 'party system' in India.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. Internal democracy should be strengthened. Parties should hold regular organisational elections and give ordinary workers a fair chance to rise.

      1 mark
    2. It should be made compulsory for parties to give at least one-third of tickets to women candidates, and the role of money and criminals in parties should be checked.

      1 mark

    Answer: Strengthen internal democracy; reserve one-third of tickets for women and curb money and criminals

    Where the marks are

    • Strengthening internal party democracy (1 mark)
    • Women's tickets or curbing money and criminals (1 mark)

    Open Q23 on its own page

  6. Q24 · 2 marks · Very short answerOutcomes of Democracy

    "Complaints are the testimony to the success of Democracy." Explain the statement with examples.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. In a democracy people have higher expectations and many complaints. They demand more and want democracy to become even better.

      1 mark
    2. This shows that people have become aware of their rights and can criticise the powerful. For example, people now believe their vote can influence how the government functions.

      1 mark

    Answer: Complaints show awareness and the ability to question the powerful, which signals the success of democracy.

    Where the marks are

    • Higher expectations and more demands (1 mark)
    • Awareness, criticism of the powerful, with an example (1 mark)

    Open Q24 on its own page

  7. Q25 · 3 marks · Short answerFederalism

    "The creation of linguistic states was the first and a major test for democratic politics in India." Explain the statement.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. Some national leaders feared that creating linguistic states would break the country apart, so the Centre initially put off the demand.

      1 mark
    2. The boundaries of many old states were changed to create new states, so that people speaking one language could live in the same state.

      1 mark
    3. Experience shows that linguistic states made the country more united, made administration easier and strengthened people's trust in democracy.

      1 mark

    Answer: Linguistic states tested democracy but ended up strengthening unity and trust.

    Where the marks are

    • Fear of division and the Centre's delay (1 mark)
    • Redrawing of boundaries for language groups (1 mark)
    • Result: unity, easier administration and trust (1 mark)

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  8. Answer one of these 2 alternatives.

    Q26(a) · 5 marks · Long answerPower-sharing

    Compare the Belgian model and the Sri Lankan model of power sharing.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. Belgium followed the accommodation model, while Sri Lanka adopted majoritarianism. Belgium recognised regional and cultural differences, but the Sri Lankan government ignored them.

      1 mark
    2. Belgium amended its constitution four times between 1970 and 1993 so that all could live together. Sri Lanka passed an Act in 1956 to satisfy the Sinhala majority.

      1 mark
    3. Belgium gave equal representation to Dutch and French ministers in the central government, with the same number at state level in Brussels. Sri Lanka made Sinhala the only official language, with preference for Sinhalese in jobs and universities.

      1 mark
    4. Belgium has a third kind of government, the community government, which is elected by each language community and decides on cultural, educational and language matters. Sri Lanka's Constitution said the state would protect and foster Buddhism.

      1 mark
    5. In Belgium, power sharing created trust, no community can take unilateral decisions, and the state governments are not subordinate to the central government. In Sri Lanka, Tamils felt alienated, and distrust led to a civil war that ended in 2009.

      1 mark

    Answer: Belgium's accommodation brought peace and unity; Sri Lanka's majoritarianism led to alienation and civil war.

    Where the marks are

    • Accommodation versus majoritarianism (1 mark)
    • Constitutional amendments versus the 1956 Act (1 mark)
    • Equal ministers versus Sinhala only and job preference (1 mark)
    • Community government versus state support for Buddhism (1 mark)
    • Outcome: trust versus civil war (1 mark)

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    OR

    Q26(b) · 5 marks · Long answerPower-sharing

    Why is power sharing necessary in a democracy? Explain.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. Power sharing reduces the chance of conflict between social groups. When every group gets a share in power, resentment falls and social peace is kept.

      1 mark
    2. It ensures the stability of the political order. Imposing the will of the majority may work for a while, but it breeds tension that can break the country apart, as in Sri Lanka.

      1 mark
    3. It accommodates diverse groups. Majority and minority communities are both included in governance, as in Belgium's accommodation model.

      1 mark
    4. It is the very spirit of democracy. People have a right to be consulted on how they are to be governed, and a legitimate government is one in which citizens take part and gain a stake in the system.

      1 mark
    5. It strengthens national unity and people's trust in democracy. It also prevents the tyranny of the majority, because power is spread among different organs and levels of government.

      1 mark

    Answer: Power sharing reduces conflict, ensures stability, accommodates diversity, is the spirit of democracy, and strengthens unity and trust.

    Where the marks are

    • Reduces conflict among social groups (1 mark)
    • Ensures political stability (1 mark)
    • Accommodates diversity, with examples (1 mark)
    • Is the spirit of democracy (1 mark)
    • Strengthens unity and trust in democracy (1 mark)

    Open Q26(b) on its own page

  9. Q27 · 4 marks · Case-basedCompetency-basedPolitical Parties

    Read the given source carefully and answer the questions that follow:
    How many political parties?

    In some countries, only one party is allowed to control and run the government. These are called one-party systems. In some countries, power usually changes between two main parties. Several other parties may exist, contest elections and win a few seats in the national legislatures. Such a party system is called two-party system. If several parties compete for power, and more than two parties have a reasonable chance of coming to power either on their own strength or in alliance with others, we call it a multiparty system.

    1. (27.1)

      Explain the main feature of 'multi-party system'.

      1 mark
    2. (27.2)

      Why is a 'one-party system' not compatible with democracy?

      1 mark
    3. (27.3)

      Explain the main characteristics of a coalition government.

      2 marks
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. (i) In a multi-party system, more than two parties compete for power. Each has a reasonable chance of coming to power either on its own strength or in alliance with others.

      1 mark
    2. (ii) A one-party system denies citizens a choice of governments, because only one party is allowed to run the government. There is no competition, so it functions like a dictatorship.

      1 mark
    3. (iii) In a coalition government, when no single party wins a majority, several parties join together to form the government.

      1 mark
    4. (iii) It represents varied interests and views. It also checks the arbitrariness of any one party, and it depends on mutual agreement among the partners.

      1 mark

    Answer: (i) More than two parties have a real chance of power, alone or in alliance. (ii) It offers no choice and no competition. (iii) Several parties join to form a government when no party has a majority, and it represents diverse interests.

    Where the marks are

    • Multi-party system: more than two parties with a real chance of power (1 mark)
    • One-party system denies choice and competition (1 mark)
    • Coalition formed by several parties when there is no majority (1 mark)
    • Represents diverse interests and checks one party's arbitrariness (1 mark)

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Section D

Economics (20 marks): MCQs 28-34 (28-29 assertion-reason type); 38 has internal choice

  1. Q28 · 1 mark · MCQCompetency-basedDevelopment

    Study the following table and arrange the States from lower to higher on the basis of 'Life Expectancy at Birth' and choose the correct option:

    StatesLife Expectancy at Birth (2018)Enrolment in Higher Education (2017 – 18)
    Haryana69.723
    Kerala75.237
    Bihar68.913.6
    Odisha68.422.1
    1. (A)Haryana, Kerala, Bihar, Odisha
    2. (B)Kerala, Haryana, Bihar, Odisha
    3. (C)Odisha, Bihar, Haryana, Kerala
    4. (D)Odisha, Bihar, Kerala, Haryana
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. Life expectancy: Odisha 68.4, Bihar 68.9, Haryana 69.7, Kerala 75.2. In increasing order this is Odisha, Bihar, Haryana, Kerala, option (C).

      1 mark

    Answer: (C) Odisha, Bihar, Haryana, Kerala

    Where the marks are

    • Orders life expectancy from lowest to highest (1 mark)
  2. Q29 · 1 mark · Assertion-reasonCompetency-basedSectors of the Indian Economy

    Two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are given below. Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option:
    Assertion (A): Agricultural production related activities are included in the tertiary sector.
    Reason (R): Tertiary sector is called as service sector.

    1. (A)Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
    2. (B)Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
    3. (C)Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
    4. (D)Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. Agriculture belongs to the primary sector, so A is false. The tertiary sector is the service sector, so R is true. Option (D).

      1 mark

    Answer: (D)

    Where the marks are

    • A false, R true (1 mark)
  3. Q30 · 1 mark · MCQGlobalisation and the Indian Economy

    Why do some countries impose tariffs on imported goods in the context of globalization? Choose the correct reason from the following options:

    1. (A)To support free trade
    2. (B)To protect local industries
    3. (C)To attract investment
    4. (D)To lower import costs
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. A tariff is a tax on imports. It makes imports costlier, so it protects local industries from foreign competition. Option (B).

      1 mark

    Answer: (B) To protect local industries

    Where the marks are

    • Tariffs protect domestic producers (1 mark)
  4. Q31 · 1 mark · MCQMoney and Credit

    Why is Rupee accepted as a medium of exchange in India?

    1. (A)Because it is issued by the Reserve Bank of India on behalf of the State Government.
    2. (B)Because it is issued by the Reserve Bank of India on behalf of the Central Government.
    3. (C)Because it is issued by the State Bank of India on behalf of the Central Government.
    4. (D)Because it is issued by the Reserve Bank of India on behalf of the World Bank.
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. The Reserve Bank of India issues rupee notes on behalf of the Central Government. The law makes them legal tender, so no one can refuse them. Option (B).

      1 mark

    Answer: (B)

    Where the marks are

    • RBI issues currency on behalf of the Central Government (1 mark)
  5. Q32 · 1 mark · MCQSectors of the Indian Economy

    Which of the following is an example of public sector?

    1. (A)Birla Cement
    2. (B)Tata Iron and Steel Company
    3. (C)Reliance Industries Limited
    4. (D)Indian Railways
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. Indian Railways is owned and run by the government, so it is public sector. The other options are private companies. Option (D).

      1 mark

    Answer: (D) Indian Railways

    Where the marks are

    • Indian Railways is government-owned (1 mark)
  6. Q33 · 1 mark · MCQCompetency-basedDevelopment

    Smt. Deepti is a resident of X country. Her country is a developed country. Which of the following would be a characteristic of her country?

    1. (A)High Infant Morality Rate
    2. (B)High Per Capita Income
    3. (C)Low Literacy Rate
    4. (D)Low Net Attendance Ratio
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. Developed countries have high per capita income. High infant mortality, low literacy and low attendance mark less developed countries. Option (B).

      1 mark

    Answer: (B) High Per Capita Income

    Where the marks are

    • High per capita income (1 mark)
  7. Q34 · 1 mark · MCQMoney and Credit

    Which one of the following is the purpose of collateral in a loan?

    1. (A)To increase the interest for the lender
    2. (B)To secure the loan for the lender
    3. (C)To reduce paperwork for the lender
    4. (D)To avoid repayment on the loan
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. Collateral is an asset pledged against a loan. If the borrower fails to repay, the lender can sell it, so it secures the loan for the lender. Option (B).

      1 mark

    Answer: (B) To secure the loan for the lender

    Where the marks are

    • Collateral secures the lender's loan (1 mark)
  8. Q35 · 2 marks · Very short answerSectors of the Indian Economy

    Explain 'Disguised Unemployment' with example.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. Disguised unemployment means more people are working than are actually needed. Everyone appears to be employed, but some are in effect unemployed, and removing them would not reduce output.

      1 mark
    2. Example: a farm of 2 hectares needs 5 workers, but 8 family members work on it. The 3 extra workers are disguised unemployed. It is mostly found in agriculture.

      1 mark

    Answer: Disguised unemployment: more workers than needed are engaged, so removing the extra ones does not affect output. Example: 8 family members working on a farm that needs 5.

    Where the marks are

    • Correct explanation of the term (1 mark)
    • Suitable example (1 mark)

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  9. Q36 · 3 marks · Short answerSectors of the Indian Economy

    Suggest any three measures for labour safety in the unorganised sector.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. Fair and minimum wages should be fixed and enforced by law for unorganised workers.

      1 mark
    2. Employers should provide safe working conditions and equipment, and the labour laws should be enforced through regular inspection.

      1 mark
    3. Workers should get health insurance, cheap medical care, pension and maternity benefits, and be made aware of their rights.

      1 mark

    Answer: Minimum wages by law, safe working conditions with inspection, and health and social security benefits with awareness of rights.

    Where the marks are

    • Minimum wage law (1 mark)
    • Safe working conditions and inspection (1 mark)
    • Health insurance, social security and awareness (1 mark)

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  10. Q37 · 3 marks · Short answerDevelopment

    Define the term 'Body Mass Index'. Explain the method of its calculation.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. Body Mass Index (BMI) is a measure nutritionists use to judge whether a person is getting proper nutrition, that is, whether the person is underweight, normal or overweight.

      1 mark
    2. It is calculated as .

      1 mark
    3. If the height is in centimetres, convert it to metres first. Then divide the weight in kg by the square of the height.

      1 mark

    Answer: BMI = weight (kg) ÷ height² (m²); it shows whether a person is adequately nourished.

    Where the marks are

    • Definition of BMI (1 mark)
    • Formula weight/height² (1 mark)
    • Conversion of height to metres and the method (1 mark)

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  11. Answer one of these 2 alternatives.

    Q38(a) · 5 marks · Long answerMoney and Credit

    Differentiate between the formal and informal sources of credit.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. Supervision: formal credit is supervised by the RBI, while informal credit has no supervision.

      1 mark
    2. Interest: formal credit carries a lower interest rate, while informal credit carries a high one.

      1 mark
    3. Sources: formal sources are banks and cooperatives, while informal sources are moneylenders, traders, employers and friends.

      1 mark
    4. Debt burden and trap: the burden is lower with formal credit and the borrower is less likely to be trapped, while informal credit is a heavy burden and often a debt trap.

      1 mark
    5. Terms and collateral: formal credit has fixed terms and needs collateral, while informal credit may have no fixed terms and needs no collateral.

      1 mark

    Answer: Formal credit: RBI-supervised, low interest, banks and cooperatives, lower burden, fixed terms with collateral. Informal credit: unsupervised, high interest, moneylenders and others, debt trap, flexible terms.

    Where the marks are

    • Supervision difference (1 mark)
    • Interest rate difference (1 mark)
    • Sources difference (1 mark)
    • Debt burden difference (1 mark)
    • Terms or collateral difference (1 mark)

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    OR

    Q38(b) · 5 marks · Long answerMoney and Credit

    Explain the functioning of 'Self-Help Groups'.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. A Self-Help Group (SHG) organises poor villagers, especially women, into a small group.

      1 mark
    2. It typically has 15-20 members from one neighbourhood, who meet regularly and save.

      1 mark
    3. Members save Rs 25 to Rs 100 or more, according to what they can afford, and the group's savings are kept in a bank account.

      1 mark
    4. Members decide on loans, the purpose, the amount, the interest rate and repayment. Small loans are given to members for needs such as releasing mortgaged land, working capital or housing, at an interest rate lower than the moneylender's.

      1 mark
    5. After a year or two of regular savings, the group becomes eligible for a bank loan without collateral. Meetings also discuss social issues, and this reduces dependence on informal lenders.

      1 mark

    Answer: An SHG is a group of 15-20 members who save regularly, lend to each other at low interest, decide loan terms themselves and later get collateral-free bank loans.

    Where the marks are

    • Poor, mostly women, organised into a group (1 mark)
    • 15-20 members who meet and save regularly (1 mark)
    • Savings put in a bank and the group decides on loans (1 mark)
    • Small loans at low interest for needs (1 mark)
    • Bank loan eligibility after regular savings, and discussion of social issues (1 mark)

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Source: official question paper, cbse.gov.in. Chapter tags and solutions are ours. Spotted a transcription error? Write tosupport@questionbuddy.in.