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ScienceCBSE Class 10 · Board exam 2024 (session 2023-24)

CBSE Class 10 Science: 2024 board paper, set 31/3/1

The question paper set in the CBSE Class 10 board exam of 2024, as printed: 39 questions for 80 marks, in sections, with each OR choice shown as an alternative. Try each question first, then open our solution.

Every question here has our step-by-step solution, split into the steps that earn marks. Each one was checked by an independent re-solve from the question paper.

Source: official question paper from cbse.gov.in: https://www.cbse.gov.in/cbsenew/question-paper/2024/X/SCIENCE.zip (a zip; this paper is the file 31_3_1_Science.pdf). Questions are transcribed from that PDF; figures are described in words, so check the official paper for them.

How the paper is set

SectionQuestionsWhat it has
A1-20MCQ 1-16, assertion-reason 17-20
B21-26Very short answer, 30-50 words
C27-33Short answer, 50-80 words
D34-36Long answer, 80-120 words
E37-39Source/case based with sub-parts

Instructions in brief: No overall choice; internal choice (OR) in some questions in Sections B, C, D and E; attempt only one alternative in such questions.

Section A

MCQ 1-16, assertion-reason 17-20

  1. Q1 · 1 mark · MCQChemical Reactions and Equations

    Identify the product 'X' obtained in the following chemical reaction :

    1. (A)Quick lime
    2. (B)Gypsum
    3. (C)Lime Stone
    4. (D)Plaster of Paris
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. When calcium carbonate (limestone) is heated strongly, it breaks down into calcium oxide and carbon dioxide: . This is thermal decomposition.

    2. So 'X' is calcium oxide, , whose common name is quick lime. Option (A).

      1 mark

    Answer: Quick lime (CaO), option (A)

    Where the marks are

    • Identifies X as quick lime, CaO (1 mark)

    Open Q1 on its own page

  2. Q2 · 1 mark · MCQAcids, Bases and Salts

    Select a pair of natural indicator from the following :

    1. (A)Litmus and methyl orange
    2. (B)Turmeric and Litmus
    3. (C)Phenolphthalein and methyl orange
    4. (D)Methyl orange and Turmeric
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. Natural indicators come from plants or lichens. Litmus is extracted from lichen, and turmeric comes from the turmeric plant.

    2. Methyl orange and phenolphthalein are synthetic indicators. Only option (B), turmeric and litmus, has both indicators natural.

      1 mark

    Answer: Turmeric and litmus, option (B)

    Where the marks are

    • Chooses turmeric and litmus as the natural pair (1 mark)

    Open Q2 on its own page

  3. Q3 · 1 mark · MCQAcids, Bases and Salts

    A chemical compound used in glass, soap and paper industries is

    1. (A)Washing Soda
    2. (B)Baking Soda
    3. (C)Bleaching Powder
    4. (D)Common Salt
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. Washing soda, , is used in the glass, soap and paper industries. It is also used to make borax and to remove permanent hardness of water.

    2. Baking soda is used in cooking and antacids, bleaching powder in bleaching and disinfecting, and common salt as a raw material and in food. The answer is (A).

      1 mark

    Answer: Washing soda, option (A)

    Where the marks are

    • Identifies washing soda (1 mark)

    Open Q3 on its own page

  4. Q4 · 1 mark · MCQCarbon and its Compounds

    The structural formula of Cyclohexane is

    1. (A)Diagram A
    2. (B)Diagram B
    3. (C)Diagram C
    4. (D)Diagram D

    Figure in the paper: Four structural formula diagrams. (A) Six-membered ring of carbon atoms with alternating double bonds, each carbon bonded to one H. (B) Six-membered saturated ring of carbon atoms, all single bonds, each carbon bonded to two H atoms. (C) Six-membered ring with two triple bonds (C≡C) and CH2 groups. (D) Six-membered ring with alternating double bonds (benzene-type), with H on each carbon. See it in the official paper.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. Cyclohexane, , is a saturated cyclic hydrocarbon. It is a ring of 6 carbon atoms joined only by single bonds.

    2. Each carbon makes two C–C bonds, so it carries two H atoms. Diagram (B) shows a saturated ring with at every corner. Diagrams with double or triple bonds are unsaturated (benzene-type and others).

      1 mark

    Answer: Diagram (B), option (B)

    Where the marks are

    • Selects the saturated six-carbon ring with two H atoms on each carbon (1 mark)

    Open Q4 on its own page

  5. Q5 · 1 mark · MCQChemical Reactions and Equations

    Consider the following Chemical equation :

    In order to balance this chemical equation, the values of a, b, c and d must be

    1. (A)1, 6, 2 and 3
    2. (B)1, 6, 3 and 2
    3. (C)2, 6, 2 and 3
    4. (D)2, 6, 3 and 2
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. Balance Al: 2 Al on the left, so (2 ). Balance Cl: Cl, so HCl.

    2. Balance O and H: 3 O come from , so . This gives 6 H, which matches the 6 HCl.

    3. Balanced equation: . So a, b, c, d = 1, 6, 2, 3, option (A).

      1 mark

    Answer: 1, 6, 2 and 3, option (A)

    Where the marks are

    • Obtains the balanced coefficients 1, 6, 2, 3 (1 mark)

    Open Q5 on its own page

  6. Q6 · 1 mark · MCQCarbon and its Compounds

    Which one of the following hydrocarbons is different from the others ?

    1. (A)
    2. (B)
    3. (C)
    4. (D)
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. , and all fit , so they are alkanes (saturated).

    2. fits , so it is an alkene (or a cycloalkane). It is the odd one out, option (B).

      1 mark

    Answer: , option (B)

    Where the marks are

    • Identifies as not following (1 mark)

    Open Q6 on its own page

  7. Q7 · 1 mark · MCQChemical Reactions and Equations

    Which one of the following reactions is different from the remaining three ?

    1. (A)
    2. (B)
    3. (C)
    4. (D)
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. In (A), (C) and (D), two compounds exchange ions to form two new compounds. These are double displacement reactions.

    2. In (B), , two substances form a single product. This is a combination reaction, so (B) is different.

      1 mark

    Answer: , option (B)

    Where the marks are

    • Recognises (B) as a combination reaction and the others as double displacement (1 mark)

    Open Q7 on its own page

  8. Q8 · 1 mark · MCQControl and Coordination

    Select from the following a plant hormone which promotes cell division.

    1. (A)Gibberellins
    2. (B)Auxins
    3. (C)Abscissic Acid
    4. (D)Cytokinins
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. Auxins promote cell elongation, gibberellins promote stem growth, and abscisic acid inhibits growth (it causes wilting of leaves).

    2. Cytokinins promote cell division and are found in areas of rapid cell division such as fruits and seeds. Option (D).

      1 mark

    Answer: Cytokinins, option (D)

    Where the marks are

    • Identifies cytokinins (1 mark)

    Open Q8 on its own page

  9. Q9 · 1 mark · MCQHow do Organisms Reproduce?

    Part(s) of a flower which attracts insects for pollination is (are)

    1. (A)petals and Sepals
    2. (B)anther and Stigma
    3. (C)petals only
    4. (D)sepals only
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. Petals are usually brightly coloured and often scented. This attracts insects for pollination.

    2. Sepals are usually green and protect the bud. Anther and stigma are reproductive parts. So the answer is petals only, (C).

      1 mark

    Answer: Petals only, option (C)

    Where the marks are

    • Chooses petals only (1 mark)

    Open Q9 on its own page

  10. Q10 · 1 mark · MCQHeredity

    In an experiment to study independent inheritance of two separate traits : shape and colour of seeds, the ratio of the different combinations in progeny would be

    1. (A)1 : 3
    2. (B)1 : 2 : 1
    3. (C)9 : 3 : 3 : 1
    4. (D)9 : 1 : 1 : 3
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. In a dihybrid cross (round yellow × wrinkled green), the plants are all round yellow (RrYy).

    2. Selfing gives the phenotypes round yellow : round green : wrinkled yellow : wrinkled green = 9 : 3 : 3 : 1. This shows independent inheritance. Option (C).

      1 mark

    Answer: 9 : 3 : 3 : 1, option (C)

    Where the marks are

    • States the dihybrid F2 ratio 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (1 mark)

    Open Q10 on its own page

  11. Q11 · 1 mark · MCQLife Processes

    Which of the following statement(s) is (are) true about human heart ?
    (a) Right atrium receives oxygenated blood from lungs through pulmonary artery.
    (b) Left atrium transfers oxygenated blood to left ventricle which sends it to various parts of the body.
    (c) Right atrium receives deoxygenated blood from different parts of the body through vena cava.
    (d) Left atrium transfers oxygenated blood to aorta which sends it to different parts of the body.

    1. (A)(b) only
    2. (B)(a) and (d)
    3. (C)(b) and (c)
    4. (D)(b) and (d)
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. (a) is false. The left atrium (not the right) receives oxygenated blood from the lungs, through the pulmonary vein. (d) is false. The aorta carries blood from the left ventricle, not from the left atrium.

    2. (b) is true: left atrium → left ventricle → body. (c) is true: the right atrium receives deoxygenated blood through the vena cava. The answer is (b) and (c), option (C).

      1 mark

    Answer: (b) and (c), option (C)

    Where the marks are

    • Identifies (b) and (c) as correct (1 mark)

    Open Q11 on its own page

  12. Q12 · 1 mark · MCQHeredity

    A cross between two tall pea plants resulted in offsprings having a few dwarf plants. The gene-combination of the parental plants must be

    1. (A)Tt and Tt
    2. (B)Tt and tt
    3. (C)TT and tt
    4. (D)TT and Tt
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. Dwarf plants are tt, so each parent must give a t allele. Both parents are tall, so each must carry T as well. Each parent is therefore Tt.

    2. Tt × Tt gives TT : Tt : tt = 1 : 2 : 1, so about ¼ of the offspring are dwarf ('a few'). Option (A).

      1 mark

    Answer: Tt and Tt, option (A)

    Where the marks are

    • Concludes both parents are heterozygous Tt (1 mark)

    Open Q12 on its own page

  13. Q13 · 1 mark · MCQThe Human Eye and the Colourful World

    The Phenomena of light involved in the formation of a rainbow in the sky are

    1. (A)Refraction, dispersion and reflection
    2. (B)Refraction, dispersion and total internal reflection
    3. (C)Dispersion, scattering and reflection
    4. (D)Dispersion, refraction and internal reflection
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. At the raindrop, sunlight is refracted and dispersed into its colours. It is then reflected internally at the back of the drop, and refracted again as it comes out.

    2. NCERT describes this as dispersion, refraction and internal reflection. Option (D).

      1 mark

    Answer: Dispersion, refraction and internal reflection, option (D)

    Where the marks are

    • Selects dispersion, refraction and internal reflection (1 mark)

    Open Q13 on its own page

  14. Q14 · 1 mark · MCQElectricity

    In case of four wires of same material, the resistance will be minimum if the diameter and length of the wire respectively are

    1. (A)D/2 and L/4
    2. (B)D/4 and 4L
    3. (C)2D and L
    4. (D)4D and 2L
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. , so .

    2. Compare for each option: (A) ; (B) ; (C) ; (D) .

    3. (D) has the smallest value, so its resistance is minimum. Option (D).

      1 mark

    Answer: 4D and 2L, option (D)

    Where the marks are

    • Uses and finds the minimum for 4D, 2L (1 mark)

    Open Q14 on its own page

  15. Q15 · 1 mark · MCQOur Environment

    A food chain will be more advantageous in terms of energy if it has

    1. (A)2 trophic levels
    2. (B)3 trophic levels
    3. (C)4 trophic levels
    4. (D)5 trophic levels
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. By the 10% law, only about 10% of the energy passes to the next trophic level. The rest is lost at every step.

    2. The fewer the trophic levels, the more energy reaches the top. So a chain with 2 trophic levels is most advantageous. Option (A).

      1 mark

    Answer: 2 trophic levels, option (A)

    Where the marks are

    • Chooses 2 trophic levels using the 10% energy law (1 mark)

    Open Q15 on its own page

  16. Q16 · 1 mark · MCQOur Environment

    Consider the following statements about ozone :
    (a) Ozone is poisonous gas.
    (b) Ozone shields the earth's surface from the infrared radiation from the sun.
    (c) Ozone is a product of UV radiations acting on oxygen molecule.
    (d) At the lower level of the earth's atmosphere, ozone performs most essential function.
    The correct statements are

    1. (A)(a) and (b)
    2. (B)(a) and (c)
    3. (C)(b) and (c)
    4. (D)(b) and (d)
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. (a) True: ozone is a deadly poison. (c) True: UV radiation splits into O atoms, which combine with to form .

    2. (b) False: ozone absorbs ultraviolet radiation, not infrared. (d) False: ozone's essential function is in the upper atmosphere. The answer is (a) and (c), option (B).

      1 mark

    Answer: (a) and (c), option (B)

    Where the marks are

    • Identifies (a) and (c) as correct (1 mark)

    Open Q16 on its own page

  17. Q17 · 1 mark · Assertion-reasonCompetency-basedMetals and Non-metals

    Assertion (A) : A piece of Zinc metal gets reddish brown coating when kept in copper sulphate solution for some time.
    Reason (R) : Copper is more reactive metal than Zinc.
    Q. Nos. 17 to 20 consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R), answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below.

    1. (A)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
    2. (B)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
    3. (C)(A) is true, but (R) is false.
    4. (D)(A) is false, but (R) is true.
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. Assertion is true. Zinc displaces copper: , and the copper deposits as a reddish brown coating.

    2. Reason is false. Zinc is more reactive than copper, which is why it displaces copper. So A is true and R is false, option (C).

      1 mark

    Answer: Option (C)

    Where the marks are

    • A true, R false because zinc is more reactive than copper (1 mark)

    Open Q17 on its own page

  18. Q18 · 1 mark · Assertion-reasonCompetency-basedHow do Organisms Reproduce?

    Assertion (A) : Offsprings produced by asexual reproduction are genetically similar to the parents.
    Reason (R) : Asexual reproduction involves a single parent.

    1. (A)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
    2. (B)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
    3. (C)(A) is true, but (R) is false.
    4. (D)(A) is false, but (R) is true.
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. Asexual reproduction involves only one parent, with no fusion of gametes. Both statements are true.

    2. Because DNA comes from a single parent, the offspring are genetically similar to it. R explains A, option (A).

      1 mark

    Answer: Option (A)

    Where the marks are

    • Both true and R correctly explains A (1 mark)

    Open Q18 on its own page

  19. Q19 · 1 mark · Assertion-reasonCompetency-basedThe Human Eye and the Colourful World

    Assertion (A) : Red light signals are used to stop the vehicles on the road.
    Reason (R) : Red coloured light is scattered the most so as to be visible from a large distance.

    1. (A)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
    2. (B)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
    3. (C)(A) is true, but (R) is false.
    4. (D)(A) is false, but (R) is true.
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. Assertion is true. Red light is used for stop signals.

    2. Reason is false. Red light has the longest wavelength, so it is scattered the least by fog and smoke. That is why it is seen from far away. Option (C).

      1 mark

    Answer: Option (C)

    Where the marks are

    • A true, R false because red is scattered least (1 mark)

    Open Q19 on its own page

  20. Q20 · 1 mark · Assertion-reasonCompetency-basedOur Environment

    Assertion (A) : The waste we generate daily may be biodegradable or non-biodegradable.
    Reason (R) : The waste generated, if not disposed off properly may cause serious environmental problems.

    1. (A)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
    2. (B)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
    3. (C)(A) is true, but (R) is false.
    4. (D)(A) is false, but (R) is true.
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. Both statements are true. Waste is of two kinds, biodegradable and non-biodegradable, and improper disposal pollutes the environment.

    2. R is about the effects of improper disposal. It does not explain why waste falls into these two types. Option (B).

      1 mark

    Answer: Option (B)

    Where the marks are

    • Both true but R is not the explanation of A (1 mark)

    Open Q20 on its own page

Section B

Very short answer, 30-50 words

  1. Q21 · 2 marks · Very short answerChemical Reactions and Equations

    When magnesium ribbon is burnt in air, an ash of white colour is produced. Write chemical equation for the reaction giving the chemical name of the ash produced. State the type of chemical reaction giving justification for your answer.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. Balanced chemical equation:

      ½ mark
    2. The white ash is magnesium oxide, .

      ½ mark
    3. Type of reaction: combination reaction.

      ½ mark
    4. Justification: two reactants, magnesium and oxygen, combine to form a single product, magnesium oxide.

      ½ mark

    Answer: ; ash = magnesium oxide; combination reaction (two substances form a single product)

    Where the marks are

    • Balanced equation (½ mark)
    • Names the ash as magnesium oxide (½ mark)
    • States combination reaction (½ mark)
    • Justifies: two substances combine to form one product (½ mark)

    Open Q21 on its own page

  2. Q22 · 2 marks · Very short answerControl and Coordination

    Where are auxins synthesized ? How do they promote phototropism ?

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. Auxins are synthesised at the shoot tip (and root tip).

      ½ mark
    2. When light falls on one side of the shoot, auxin diffuses towards the shady side.

      ½ mark
    3. The higher auxin concentration on the shady side makes those cells grow longer than the cells on the lit side.

      ½ mark
    4. The unequal growth makes the shoot bend towards light. This is phototropism.

      ½ mark

    Answer: Synthesised at the shoot tip; auxin moves to the shaded side, making cells there elongate more, so the shoot bends towards light.

    Where the marks are

    • Site of synthesis: shoot tip (½ mark)
    • Auxin diffuses to the shady side (½ mark)
    • Causes greater cell elongation on the shady side (½ mark)
    • Shoot bends towards light, i.e. phototropism (½ mark)

    Open Q22 on its own page

  3. Answer one of these 2 alternatives.

    Q23(a) · 2 marks · Very short answerHeredity

    List any two pairs of visible contrasting characters of garden pea plants used by Mendel for his experiments stating the dominant and recessive characters in each pair.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. Pair 1, plant height: Tall is dominant.

      ½ mark
    2. Dwarf (short) is recessive.

      ½ mark
    3. Pair 2, seed colour: Yellow seed is dominant.

      ½ mark
    4. Green seed is recessive. (Other valid pairs: round/wrinkled seeds, violet/white flowers.)

      ½ mark

    Answer: Tall (dominant) / dwarf (recessive); yellow seed (dominant) / green seed (recessive)

    Where the marks are

    • Tall dominant, dwarf recessive (½ + ½ mark)
    • Yellow seed dominant, green seed recessive, or any other correct pair (½ + ½ mark)

    Open Q23(a) on its own page

    OR

    Q23(b) · 2 marks · Very short answerHeredity

    In human beings, the probability of getting a male or a female child is 50%. Explain with the help of a flow diagram only.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. Parents: Father XY × Mother XX.

      ½ mark
    2. Gametes: sperms are X or Y (two types, 50% each); eggs are all X.

      ½ mark
    3. Fertilisation: egg X + sperm X → XX (girl); egg X + sperm Y → XY (boy).

      ½ mark
    4. Offspring: XX : XY = 1 : 1, so the chance of a female child is 50% and of a male child is 50%. The sex of the child depends on which sperm fertilises the egg.

      ½ mark

    Answer: XY × XX → gametes X, Y and X → XX (female, 50%) and XY (male, 50%)

    Where the marks are

    • Parents shown as XY and XX (½ mark)
    • Gametes X and Y from father, X from mother (½ mark)
    • Combinations XX and XY shown (½ mark)
    • Concludes 50% female, 50% male (½ mark)

    Open Q23(b) on its own page

  4. Q24 · 2 marks · Very short answerThe Human Eye and the Colourful World

    When do we say that a particular person is suffering from hypermetropia ? List two causes of this defect. Name the type of lens used to correct this defect.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. When: A person has hypermetropia (far-sightedness) when he can see distant objects clearly but cannot see nearby objects distinctly. The near point of the eye moves farther away than the normal 25 cm, because light from a nearby object focuses behind the retina.

      ½ mark
    2. Cause 1: The focal length of the eye lens is too long, so the eye lens is not converging enough.

      ½ mark
    3. Cause 2: The eyeball has become too small, so the distance from the lens to the retina is too short.

      ½ mark
    4. Correction: A convex (converging) lens of suitable power is used. It brings the image back onto the retina.

      ½ mark

    Answer: Hypermetropia: nearby objects are not seen clearly while far objects are seen clearly. Causes: focal length of eye lens too long; eyeball too small. Correction: convex (converging) lens.

    Where the marks are

    • States that nearby objects cannot be seen distinctly while far objects are clear (½ mark)
    • Cause: focal length of eye lens too long (½ mark)
    • Cause: eyeball too small/shortened (½ mark)
    • Names convex/converging lens for correction (½ mark)

    Open Q24 on its own page

  5. Answer one of these 2 alternatives.

    Q25(a) · 2 marks · Very short answerMagnetic Effects of Electric Current

    Draw a labelled diagram to show the pattern of magnetic field lines produced due to a current carrying straight conductor. Mark on it the direction of current in the conductor and the direction of magnetic field lines.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. Diagram (describe/draw): Draw a straight vertical wire XY passing through a horizontal cardboard sheet. Connect it in a circuit with a battery, key K, a variable resistance and an ammeter. On the cardboard, draw concentric circles centred on the wire. These are the magnetic field lines. They lie closer together near the wire and farther apart away from it. Label: conductor, cardboard, magnetic field lines, battery, key.

      1 mark
    2. Direction of current: Mark an arrow on the wire. Take the current flowing vertically upward (from Y to X), i.e. from the + terminal of the battery round the circuit.

      ½ mark
    3. Direction of field: By the right-hand thumb rule, with the thumb pointing along the upward current, the curled fingers give the field direction. The field lines are therefore anticlockwise when viewed from above. Mark arrows on the circles accordingly. (If the current is downward, the circles become clockwise.)

      ½ mark

    Answer: Concentric circular field lines centred on the wire. For an upward current they are anticlockwise when seen from above (right-hand thumb rule).

    Where the marks are

    • Correct diagram: straight conductor through cardboard with concentric circles (1 mark)
    • Direction of current marked on conductor (½ mark)
    • Direction of field lines consistent with right-hand thumb rule (½ mark)

    Open Q25(a) on its own page

    OR

    Q25(b) · 2 marks · Very short answerMagnetic Effects of Electric Current

    Name the device used to magnetise a piece of magnetic material. Draw a labelled diagram to show the arrangement used for the magnetisation of a cylinder made of soft iron.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. Device: A current-carrying solenoid is used. When a soft iron piece is placed inside it, it forms an electromagnet.

      ½ mark
    2. Diagram: Draw a soft iron cylinder (rod). Wind a coil of many turns of insulated copper wire closely around it, forming a solenoid. Connect the ends of the coil in series with a battery and a plug key K. Show the direction of current with arrows.

      1 mark
    3. Labels: soft iron rod, current-carrying solenoid (coil), battery, key. When the key is closed, the strong magnetic field inside the solenoid magnetises the soft iron.

      ½ mark

    Answer: Current-carrying solenoid (electromagnet). The soft iron cylinder is placed inside a coil connected to a battery and key.

    Where the marks are

    • Names solenoid/electromagnet (½ mark)
    • Diagram of coil wound on soft iron rod connected to battery and key (1 mark)
    • Correct labelling (½ mark)

    Open Q25(b) on its own page

  6. Q26 · 2 marks · Very short answerOur Environment

    What are decomposers ? List two consequences of their absence in an ecosystem.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. Decomposers are micro-organisms such as bacteria and fungi. They break down the complex organic substances of dead plants, dead animals and wastes into simple inorganic substances, which return to the soil.

      1 mark
    2. Consequence 1: Dead bodies and wastes would pile up in the environment, causing foul smell and the breeding of flies.

      ½ mark
    3. Consequence 2: Nutrients would not be recycled, so the soil would not be replenished and plants would lack minerals.

      ½ mark

    Answer: Decomposers are microbes that break dead organic matter into simple inorganic substances. Without them, dead matter would accumulate and nutrients would not be recycled or returned to the soil.

    Where the marks are

    • Correct definition of decomposers (1 mark)
    • Any two consequences, e.g. accumulation of dead matter/foul smell, no recycling of nutrients/soil not replenished (½ + ½ marks)

    Open Q26 on its own page

Section C

Short answer, 50-80 words

  1. Q27 · 3 marks · Short answerMetals and Non-metals

    State reasons for the following :
    (a) Zinc oxide is an amphoteric oxide.
    (b) Sodium metal is stored in bottle filled with kerosene oil.
    (c) In the reactions of nitric acid with metals, generally hydrogen gas is not evolved.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. (a) Zinc oxide reacts with both acids and bases to give salt and water, so it is amphoteric. For example: and .

      1 mark
    2. (b) Sodium is very reactive. In open air it reacts vigorously with oxygen and moisture and may catch fire. Keeping it under kerosene cuts off contact with air and water and prevents accidental fire.

      1 mark
    3. (c) Nitric acid is a strong oxidising agent. It oxidises the hydrogen produced to water, while itself being reduced to oxides of nitrogen. So gas is generally not evolved. (Mg and Mn with very dilute are exceptions.)

      1 mark

    Answer: (a) ZnO reacts with both acids and bases to give salt and water. (b) Na reacts vigorously with air/moisture and catches fire; kerosene prevents contact. (c) HNO₃ is a strong oxidising agent and oxidises H₂ to water.

    Where the marks are

    • ZnO reacts with acids as well as bases forming salt and water (1 mark)
    • Sodium reacts vigorously with air and catches fire; kerosene prevents contact (1 mark)
    • HNO₃ is a strong oxidising agent that oxidises H₂ to H₂O (1 mark)

    Open Q27 on its own page

  2. Answer one of these 2 alternatives.

    Q28(a) · 3 marks · Short answerMetals and Non-metals

    State giving reason the reduction process to obtain the following metals from their compounds :
    (i) Mercury,
    (ii) Copper and
    (iii) Sodium

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. (i) Mercury – Process: Roasting followed by heating alone. Cinnabar is roasted: , and then .

      ½ mark
    2. Reason: Mercury is low in the activity series (low reactivity), so heating alone is enough to reduce its oxide.

      ½ mark
    3. (ii) Copper – Process: Roasting with self-reduction. , then .

      ½ mark
    4. Reason: Copper also has low reactivity, so heating in air is enough to obtain the metal.

      ½ mark
    5. (iii) Sodium – Process: Electrolytic reduction of molten sodium chloride. Sodium is deposited at the cathode: .

      ½ mark
    6. Reason: Sodium is highly reactive, near the top of the activity series. Carbon cannot reduce its compounds, so electrolysis is needed.

      ½ mark

    Answer: (i) Mercury: roasting/heating alone, because it has low reactivity. (ii) Copper: roasting/heating alone (self-reduction), because it has low reactivity. (iii) Sodium: electrolytic reduction of molten NaCl, because it is highly reactive.

    Where the marks are

    • Mercury – roasting/heating (½ mark); reason: low reactivity (½ mark)
    • Copper – roasting/heating (½ mark); reason: low reactivity (½ mark)
    • Sodium – electrolytic reduction (½ mark); reason: highly reactive (½ mark)

    Open Q28(a) on its own page

    OR

    Q28(b) · 3 marks · Short answerMetals and Non-metals

    State giving reason for the change in appearance observed when each of the following metal is exposed to atmospheric air for some time :
    (i) Silver,
    (ii) Copper and
    (iii) Iron

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. (i) Silver: Shiny white silver turns black (tarnishes).

      ½ mark
    2. Reason: It reacts with hydrogen sulphide in air to form a coating of silver sulphide, .

      ½ mark
    3. (ii) Copper: Reddish-brown copper gains a green coating.

      ½ mark
    4. Reason: It reacts with moist carbon dioxide in air to form basic copper carbonate, .

      ½ mark
    5. (iii) Iron: Grey iron becomes covered with a reddish-brown flaky layer.

      ½ mark
    6. Reason: In the presence of moist air (oxygen and water), iron rusts, forming hydrated iron(III) oxide, .

      ½ mark

    Answer: (i) Silver turns black (Ag₂S formed). (ii) Copper turns green (basic copper carbonate formed). (iii) Iron gets a reddish-brown coating (rust, hydrated iron oxide).

    Where the marks are

    • Silver: white to black (½ mark); silver sulphide formed (½ mark)
    • Copper: reddish-brown to green (½ mark); basic copper carbonate formed (½ mark)
    • Iron: grey to reddish-brown (½ mark); rust/iron oxide formed (½ mark)

    Open Q28(b) on its own page

  3. Q29 · 3 marks · Short answerLife Processes

    We water the soil but it reaches the topmost leaves of the plants. Explain in brief the process involved.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. Absorption: Root cells take in water and minerals from the soil. Water enters the root xylem, and the vessels and tracheids of roots, stems and leaves form a continuous channel.

      1 mark
    2. Transpiration: Water evaporates from the leaf cells and is lost through the stomata. This loss of water vapour from the aerial parts is called transpiration.

      1 mark
    3. Transpiration pull: The loss of water creates a suction force (transpiration pull). This pulls the continuous column of water upward through the xylem from the roots to the topmost leaves. Root pressure also helps, especially at night.

      1 mark

    Answer: Water lost from leaves by transpiration through the stomata creates a suction (transpiration pull), which draws water up through the continuous xylem from the roots to the leaves.

    Where the marks are

    • Water lost through stomata by transpiration (1 mark)
    • This creates suction/transpiration pull (1 mark)
    • Water is pulled up through the xylem from roots to leaves (1 mark)

    Open Q29 on its own page

  4. Q30 · 3 marks · Short answerControl and Coordination

    Answer the following.

    1. (a)

      List two constituents of Central Nervous System (CNS). How are these components protected from injuries ?

      0 marks
    2. (b)

      Write two limitations of the use of electrical impulses.

      0 marks
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. (a) Constituents: The CNS consists of the brain and the spinal cord.

      1 mark
    2. (a) Protection of brain: The brain lies inside a bony box, the skull (cranium). It is cushioned by a fluid-filled balloon, the cerebrospinal fluid, which acts as a shock absorber.

      ½ mark
    3. (a) Protection of spinal cord: The spinal cord is protected by the vertebral column (backbone).

      ½ mark
    4. (b) Limitation 1: Electrical impulses reach only those cells that are connected by nervous tissue, not every cell of the body.

      ½ mark
    5. (b) Limitation 2: After a cell generates and transmits an impulse, it needs time to reset before it can send a new one. So cells cannot generate impulses continuously.

      ½ mark

    Answer: (a) Brain and spinal cord. The brain is protected by the skull (cranium) and fluid; the spinal cord by the vertebral column. (b) Impulses reach only cells connected to nerves; a cell needs time to reset before sending another impulse.

    Where the marks are

    • Names brain and spinal cord (½ + ½ marks)
    • Brain protected by skull/cranium/fluid (½ mark)
    • Spinal cord protected by vertebral column (½ mark)
    • Two limitations of electrical impulses (½ + ½ marks)

    Open Q30 on its own page

  5. Q31 · 3 marks · Short answerThe Human Eye and the Colourful World

    Name and explain the phenomenon of light due to which the path of a beam of light becomes visible when it enters a smoke filled room through a small hole. Also state the dependence of colour of the light we receive on the size of the particle of the medium through which the beam of light passes.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. Phenomenon: Scattering of light, seen here as the Tyndall effect.

      1 mark
    2. Explanation: The smoke contains fine colloidal particles. When the beam strikes them, they scatter (diffusely reflect) light in all directions. Some of this scattered light reaches our eyes, so the path of the beam becomes visible.

      1 mark
    3. Dependence on particle size: Very fine particles scatter mainly blue light (shorter wavelengths). Larger particles scatter light of longer wavelengths. If the particles are large enough, all colours are scattered and the light appears white.

      1 mark

    Answer: Tyndall effect (scattering of light). Smoke particles scatter light so the beam's path is visible. Very fine particles scatter mainly blue (short wavelength) light; larger particles scatter longer wavelengths (white if very large).

    Where the marks are

    • Names scattering of light/Tyndall effect (1 mark)
    • Explains that smoke particles scatter light, making the path visible (1 mark)
    • Fine particles scatter blue/short wavelengths; larger particles scatter longer wavelengths (1 mark)

    Open Q31 on its own page

  6. Q32 · 3 marks · Short answerElectricity

    Explain in brief the function of an electric fuse in a domestic circuit. An electric heater of current rating 3 kW; 220 V is to be operated in an electric circuit of rating 5 A. What is likely to happen when the heater is switched 'ON' ? Justify your answer with necessary calculation.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. Function of fuse: A fuse is a short wire of low melting point connected in series with the circuit. If excess current flows because of overloading or a short circuit, the wire heats up (Joule heating), melts and breaks the circuit. This protects the appliances and the wiring from damage.

      1 mark
    2. Given: , . Formula used: .

      ½ mark
    3. 1 mark
    4. Conclusion: The heater draws about 13.6 A, which is more than the 5 A rating of the circuit. When the heater is switched ON, the fuse wire will melt and break the circuit, and the heater will not work in this circuit.

      ½ mark

    Answer: The fuse protects against overloading and short circuits by melting. The heater draws I = 3000/220 ≈ 13.6 A > 5 A, so the fuse will blow and the circuit will break.

    Where the marks are

    • Function of fuse: melts on excess current, protecting circuit and appliances (1 mark)
    • Uses P = VI (½ mark)
    • Calculates I ≈ 13.6 A (1 mark)
    • Concludes that the current exceeds 5 A, so the fuse melts (½ mark)

    Open Q32 on its own page

  7. Q33 · 3 marks · Short answerElectricity

    Answer the following.

    1. (a)

      State Ohm's law. Write formula for the equivalent resistance of the parallel combination of three resistors of values , and .

      0 marks
    2. (b)

      Find the resistance of the following network of resistors :

      0 marks

    Figure in the paper: Resistor network between terminals X and Y: a resistor R in series from X, followed by two resistors R connected in parallel (one on the upper branch and one on the lower branch), then a wire to terminal Y. See it in the official paper.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. (a) Ohm's law: The potential difference across the ends of a metallic conductor is directly proportional to the current through it, provided its temperature stays the same. So , i.e. .

      1 mark
    2. (a) Parallel combination:

      1 mark
    3. (b) Parallel pair: The two resistors in parallel give , so . This combination is in series with the first . Hence .

      1 mark

    Answer: (a) V ∝ I at constant temperature; 1/Rₚ = 1/R₁ + 1/R₂ + 1/R₃. (b) Equivalent resistance = 3R/2.

    Where the marks are

    • Correct statement of Ohm's law including the constant-temperature condition (1 mark)
    • Correct parallel formula (1 mark)
    • Equivalent resistance R + R/2 = 3R/2 (1 mark)

    Open Q33 on its own page

Section D

Long answer, 80-120 words

  1. Answer one of these 2 alternatives.

    Q34(a) · 5 marks · Long answerAcids, Bases and Salts

    Answer the following.

    1. (i)

      Five solutions A, B, C, D and E when tested with pH paper showed pH as 4, 1, 13, 7 and 10 respectively. Which solution is : (1) Strongly acidic (2) Strongly alkaline (3) Weakly acidic (4) Neutral and (5) Weakly alkaline ? Arrange the solutions in increasing order of ion concentration.

      0 marks
    2. (ii)

      Write the name and formula of (1) an acidic salt and (2) a basic salt giving the name of the parent acid and parent base used to form the salt in each case.

      0 marks
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. (i)(1) Strongly acidic: Solution B (pH 1). pH far below 7 means strongly acidic.

      ½ mark
    2. (i)(2) Strongly alkaline: Solution C (pH 13).

      ½ mark
    3. (i)(3) Weakly acidic: Solution A (pH 4), which is below 7 but close to it.

      ½ mark
    4. (i)(4) Neutral: Solution D (pH 7).

      ½ mark
    5. (i)(5) Weakly alkaline: Solution E (pH 10).

      ½ mark
    6. **Increasing order of concentration:** The lower the pH, the higher the . So the order of decreasing pH gives .

      ½ mark
    7. (ii)(1) Acidic salt: Ammonium chloride, . It is formed from a strong acid and a weak base, so its solution has pH < 7.

      ½ mark
    8. Parent acid: hydrochloric acid, . Parent base: ammonium hydroxide, .

      ½ mark
    9. (ii)(2) Basic salt: Sodium carbonate, . It is formed from a weak acid and a strong base, so its solution has pH > 7.

      ½ mark
    10. Parent acid: carbonic acid, . Parent base: sodium hydroxide, .

      ½ mark

    Answer: (i) Strongly acidic B; strongly alkaline C; weakly acidic A; neutral D; weakly alkaline E. Order of increasing [H⁺]: C < E < D < A < B. (ii) Acidic salt NH₄Cl (HCl + NH₄OH); basic salt Na₂CO₃ (H₂CO₃ + NaOH).

    Where the marks are

    • Each correct identification of B, C, A, D, E (½ × 5 = 2½ marks)
    • Correct order C < E < D < A < B (½ mark)
    • Acidic salt name and formula (½ mark); its parent acid and base (½ mark)
    • Basic salt name and formula (½ mark); its parent acid and base (½ mark)

    Open Q34(a) on its own page

    OR

    Q34(b) · 5 marks · Long answerAcids, Bases and Salts

    Name and state in brief the process which is used to prepare sodium hydroxide from sodium chloride. In this process along with the main product two gases 'X' and 'Y' are also given off at the two electrodes. Name 'X' and 'Y' specifying the name of their respective electrode at which each gas is obtained. One of these gases when reacts with dry calcium hydroxide produces a compound 'Z' which is widely used in water treatment plants and textile industries. Name Z and write chemical equation for the reaction involved in its formation.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. Name of the process: Sodium hydroxide is made from sodium chloride by the chlor-alkali process. It is called this because its products are chlorine (chlor) and sodium hydroxide (alkali).

      1 mark
    2. The process in brief: Electricity is passed through brine, a concentrated aqueous solution of sodium chloride. The brine decomposes to give sodium hydroxide, chlorine and hydrogen:

      Sodium hydroxide solution forms near the cathode.

      ½ mark
    3. Gas X: X is **chlorine gas (). It is given off at the anode** (positive electrode).

      1 mark
    4. Gas Y: Y is **hydrogen gas (). It is given off at the cathode** (negative electrode).

      1 mark
    5. Compound Z: Chlorine (gas X) reacts with dry slaked lime, , to form **bleaching powder (calcium oxychloride), ** = Z.

      Z is used to disinfect drinking water in treatment plants and to bleach cotton and linen in the textile industry.

      ½ mark
    6. Equation for the formation of Z:

      1 mark

    Answer: Chlor-alkali process (); X = at anode, Y = at cathode; Z = bleaching powder ;

    Where the marks are

    • Names the chlor-alkali process (1 mark)
    • States that electrolysis of brine gives NaOH, or writes the balanced equation (½ mark)
    • X = chlorine, given off at the anode (½ + ½ marks)
    • Y = hydrogen, given off at the cathode (½ + ½ marks)
    • Z = bleaching powder / (½ mark)
    • Balanced equation (1 mark)

    Open Q34(b) on its own page

  2. Answer one of these 2 alternatives.

    Q35(a) · 5 marks · Long answerHow do Organisms Reproduce?

    Answer the following.

    1. (i)

      What are spores ? On which structures are they formed ? How do they overcome unfavourable conditions ? Name the organism which multiplies with the help of these structures.

      0 marks
    2. (ii)

      Give two reasons why some plants are grown by the method of vegetative propagation. List two methods used to grow plants vegetatively.

      0 marks
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. (i) Spores: Spores are tiny, single-celled reproductive bodies. They are released from the parent and each one can grow into a new individual when it lands on a moist, suitable surface.

      ½ mark
    2. (i) Where they form: Spores are formed inside blob-like structures called sporangia (singular: sporangium), at the tips of thin hyphae.

      ½ mark
    3. (i) Surviving unfavourable conditions: Each spore is covered by a thick protective wall. This wall protects the spore from drying out and from harsh conditions until it reaches a moist surface and can germinate.

      ½ mark
    4. (i) Organism: Rhizopus (bread mould) reproduces by spore formation.

      ½ mark
    5. (ii) Reason 1: Some plants have lost the ability to produce seeds, for example banana, orange, rose and jasmine. Such plants can only be multiplied vegetatively.

      1 mark
    6. (ii) Reason 2: Plants raised vegetatively flower and fruit earlier than plants grown from seeds. Also, all the new plants are genetically similar to the parent, so useful characters are kept.

      1 mark
    7. (ii) Two methods of vegetative propagation: (1) Layering and (2) Grafting. Stem cutting is also accepted.

      1 mark

    Answer: (i) Spores are single-celled reproductive bodies; formed in sporangia; thick protective walls help them survive; Rhizopus. (ii) Seedless plants (banana, rose) can be grown, and plants flower/fruit earlier and are genetically similar to the parent; methods: layering and grafting

    Where the marks are

    • Correct meaning of spores (½ mark)
    • Formed in sporangia (½ mark)
    • Thick protective wall helps them survive unfavourable conditions (½ mark)
    • Names Rhizopus (½ mark)
    • Two valid reasons for vegetative propagation (1 + 1 marks)
    • Names two methods, e.g. layering and grafting (1 mark)

    Open Q35(a) on its own page

    OR

    Q35(b) · 5 marks · Long answerHow do Organisms Reproduce?

    Answer the following.

    1. (i)

      Study the diagram given below and name the parts marked as A, B and C. What happens when B reaches C in the ovary ? Mention its significance.

      0 marks
    2. (ii)

      Write the post fertilisation changes that occur in a flower.

      0 marks

    Figure in the paper: Longitudinal section of a flower showing the stigma at top, a long style, and an ovary at the base containing ovules. Arrows labelled A (pointing to the style just below the stigma), B (pointing to the pollen tube growing down the style) and C (pointing to the micropyle/egg region inside an ovule within the ovary). See it in the official paper.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. (i) Labels (as in NCERT's figure of pollen germinating on the stigma):

      • A – male germ cell (male gamete)
      • B – pollen tube
      • C – female germ cell (female gamete, the egg inside the ovule)
      1½ marks
    2. (i) When B reaches C: The pollen tube (B) grows down through the style and enters the ovule. It carries the male germ cell (A) with it. The male germ cell fuses with the female germ cell (C). This fusion is fertilisation, and it forms a zygote.

      1 mark
    3. (i) Significance: The zygote develops into an embryo, which grows into a new plant. Because genetic material comes from two parents, the offspring also show variation.

      ½ mark
    4. (ii) Post-fertilisation change 1: The zygote divides many times to form an embryo inside the ovule.

      ½ mark
    5. (ii) Post-fertilisation change 2: The ovule develops a tough coat and becomes the seed.

      ½ mark
    6. (ii) Post-fertilisation change 3: The ovary grows rapidly and ripens into the fruit.

      ½ mark
    7. (ii) Post-fertilisation change 4: The petals, sepals, stamens, style and stigma shrivel and fall off.

      ½ mark

    Answer: (i) A – male germ cell, B – pollen tube, C – female germ cell; male germ cell fuses with female germ cell (fertilisation) to form a zygote, which grows into a new plant. (ii) Zygote forms embryo, ovule becomes seed, ovary becomes fruit, other floral parts shrivel and fall

    Where the marks are

    • Correctly names A, B and C (½ × 3 marks)
    • States that the pollen tube carries the male gamete, which fuses with the female gamete to form a zygote (1 mark)
    • Significance: the zygote grows into a new plant (½ mark)
    • Any four post-fertilisation changes (½ × 4 marks)

    Open Q35(b) on its own page

  3. Answer one of these 2 alternatives.

    Q36(a) · 5 marks · Long answerLight – Reflection and Refraction

    Answer the following.

    1. (i)

      Draw a ray diagram to show the path of the refracted ray in each of the following cases : A ray of light incident on a concave lens (1) parallel to its principal axis, and (2) is directed towards its principal focus.

      0 marks
    2. (ii)

      A 4 cm tall object is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of convex lens of focal length 24 cm. The distance of object from the lens is 16 cm. Find the position and size of image formed.

      5 marks
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. (i)(1) Ray diagram: ray parallel to the principal axis of a concave lens.

      • Draw a concave lens with optical centre O, its principal axis, and foci (on the object side) and .
      • Draw a ray, with an arrow, travelling parallel to the principal axis and striking the lens.
      • After refraction the ray diverges away from the axis.
      • Extend it backwards with a dotted line; the extension passes through on the same side as the incoming ray.
      • So the refracted ray appears to come from the principal focus .
      1 mark
    2. (i)(2) Ray diagram: ray directed towards the principal focus of a concave lens.

      • Draw a ray, with an arrow, aimed towards on the far side of the lens. Show its continuation beyond the lens as a dotted line meeting .
      • After refraction the ray emerges parallel to the principal axis.

      Arrows must be shown on all rays; half a mark is lost if they are missing.

      1 mark
    3. (ii) Given (using the sign convention): height of object cm, object distance cm, focal length of convex lens cm.

      ½ mark
    4. (ii) Lens formula:

      ½ mark
    5. (ii) Substituting:


      The image is formed 48 cm from the lens, on the same side as the object. It is virtual and erect.

      1 mark
    6. (ii) Magnification:

      ½ mark
    7. (ii) Size of image:


      The image is 12 cm tall, erect and magnified 3 times.

      ½ mark

    Answer: (i) (1) refracted ray diverges and appears to come from ; (2) refracted ray emerges parallel to the principal axis. (ii) v = −48 cm (on the same side as the object, virtual, erect); image height = 12 cm

    Where the marks are

    • Correct ray diagram for a ray parallel to the principal axis, with arrows (1 mark)
    • Correct ray diagram for a ray directed towards the focus, with arrows (1 mark)
    • Writes the given values with correct signs (½ mark)
    • Writes the lens formula (½ mark)
    • Calculates v = −48 cm (1 mark)
    • Writes the magnification formula (½ mark)
    • Calculates h' = 12 cm (½ mark)

    Open Q36(a) on its own page

    OR

    Q36(b) · 5 marks · Long answerLight – Reflection and Refraction

    Answer the following.

    1. (i)

      Draw a ray diagram to show the path of the reflected ray in each of the following cases : A ray of light incident on a convex mirror (1) parallel to its principal axis, and (2) is directed towards its principal focus.

      0 marks
    2. (ii)

      A 1.5 cm tall candle flame is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a concave mirror of focal length 12 cm. If the distance of the flame from the pole of the mirror is 18 cm, use mirror formula to determine the position and size of the image formed.

      5 marks
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. (i)(1) Ray diagram: ray parallel to the principal axis of a convex mirror.

      • Draw a convex mirror, its principal axis, and F and C behind the mirror.
      • Draw a ray, with an arrow, parallel to the principal axis striking the mirror.
      • The reflected ray goes back outwards, away from the axis.
      • Extend it behind the mirror with a dotted line; the extension passes through the principal focus F.
      • So the reflected ray appears to diverge from F.
      1 mark
    2. (i)(2) Ray diagram: ray directed towards the principal focus of a convex mirror.

      • Draw a ray, with an arrow, aimed towards F behind the mirror. Show the part behind the mirror as a dotted line.
      • After reflection the ray travels back parallel to the principal axis.

      Arrows must be shown on all rays; half a mark is lost if they are missing.

      1 mark
    3. (ii) Given (using the sign convention): cm, cm, focal length of concave mirror cm. Unknowns: ,

      ½ mark
    4. (ii) Mirror formula:

      ½ mark
    5. (ii) Substituting:


      The image is formed 36 cm in front of the mirror, on the same side as the object. It is a real image.

      1 mark
    6. (ii) Magnification:

      ½ mark
    7. (ii) Size of image:


      The image is 3 cm tall. It is real, inverted and twice the size of the flame.

      ½ mark

    Answer: (i) (1) reflected ray appears to diverge from F; (2) reflected ray goes parallel to the principal axis. (ii) v = −36 cm (36 cm in front of the mirror, real); h' = −3.0 cm (3 cm tall, inverted, magnified)

    Where the marks are

    • Correct ray diagram for a ray parallel to the axis of a convex mirror, with arrows (1 mark)
    • Correct ray diagram for a ray directed towards F, with arrows (1 mark)
    • Writes the given values with correct signs (½ mark)
    • Writes the mirror formula (½ mark)
    • Calculates v = −36 cm (1 mark)
    • Writes (½ mark)
    • Calculates h' = −3.0 cm (½ mark)

    Open Q36(b) on its own page

Section E

Source/case based with sub-parts

  1. Q37 · 4 marks · Case-basedCompetency-basedCarbon and its Compounds

    More than three million carbon compounds have been discovered in the field of chemistry. The diversity of these compounds is due to the capacity of carbon atoms for bonding with one another as well as with other atoms. Most of the carbon compounds are poor conductors of electricity and have low melting and boiling points.

    1. (a)

      Write the molecular formula of first two members of homologous series having functional group –Br.

      1 mark
    2. (b)

      Given below are the formulae of some functional groups : (i) (aldehyde group drawn as –C(=O)H) and (ii) (ketone group drawn as –C(=O)–). Write the name of these functional groups.

      1 mark
    3. (c)

      What would be observed on adding a 5% alkaline potassium permanganate drop by drop to some warm ethanol taken in a test tube ? State the role of in the reaction and write the chemical equation for the reaction involved.

      2 marks
    4. OR

      (c)

      Write the name of the compound formed when ethanol is heated at 443 K temperature with excess of conc. . What is the role of conc. in the reaction ? Write the chemical equation for the reaction involved.

      2 marks

    Figure in the paper: Two functional group structures: (i) a carbon atom double-bonded to O, with a single bond to H and a single bond to the rest of the molecule (aldehyde group, –CHO). (ii) a carbon atom with a double bond to O and two single bonds to the rest of the molecule (ketone group, –CO–). See it in the official paper.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. (a) First member: In a homologous series, each member differs from the next by a unit. The first member with the –Br group is bromomethane, .

      ½ mark
    2. (a) Second member: The second member is bromoethane, ().

      ½ mark
    3. (b)(i) (carbonyl carbon bonded to H): aldehyde group.

      ½ mark
    4. (b)(ii) (carbonyl carbon bonded to two carbons): ketone group.

      ½ mark
    5. (c)(a) Observation: The purple (pink) colour of alkaline disappears as it is added to warm ethanol. Once excess is added, the colour no longer goes.

      ½ mark
    6. (c)(a) **Role of : It acts as an oxidising agent**. It supplies oxygen to convert ethanol into ethanoic acid, and is used up itself in the process, so its colour is lost.

      ½ mark
    7. (c)(a) Equation:

      1 mark
    8. (c)(b) OR alternative (marked instead of (c)(a) if chosen) – Product: Ethene () is formed. [½ mark]

    9. (c)(b) **Role of conc. : It is a dehydrating agent**; it removes a water molecule from ethanol. [½ mark]

    10. (c)(b) Equation: [1 mark]

    Answer: (a) , ; (b) (i) aldehyde, (ii) ketone; (c)(a) purple colour of disappears, is an oxidising agent, ; (c)(b) ethene, conc. is a dehydrating agent,

    Where the marks are

    • and (½ + ½ marks)
    • Aldehyde and ketone (½ + ½ marks)
    • (c) Colour of disappears (½ mark); acts as oxidising agent (½ mark); correct equation (1 mark)
    • OR (c) Ethene (½ mark); dehydrating agent (½ mark); correct equation (1 mark)

    Open Q37 on its own page

  2. Q38 · 4 marks · Case-basedCompetency-basedLife Processes

    Human digestive system is a tube running from mouth to anus. Its main function is to breakdown complex molecules present in the food which cannot be absorbed as such into smaller molecules. These molecules are absorbed across the walls of the tube and the absorbed food reaches each and every cell of the body where it is utilised for obtaining energy.

    1. (a)

      Name the glands present in the buccal cavity and write the components of food on which the secretion of these glands act upon.

      1 mark
    2. (b)

      Two organs have a sphincter muscle at their exit. Name them.

      1 mark
    3. (c)

      What will happen if : (i) mucus is not secreted by the gastric glands. (ii) Villi are absent in the small intestine.

      2 marks
    4. OR

      (c)

      "Bile juice does not contain any enzyme, yet it has important roles in digestion." Justify the statement.

      2 marks
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. (a) Glands: The glands of the buccal cavity are the salivary glands.

      Food acted on: Saliva contains the enzyme salivary amylase, which acts on starch (a carbohydrate) and breaks it down into sugar.

      1 mark
    2. (b) Organs with sphincters at their exit:
      1. The stomach – the pyloric sphincter controls the release of food into the small intestine.
      2. The anus – the anal sphincter controls the removal of undigested waste.

      1 mark
    3. (c)(a)(i) No mucus from the gastric glands: Mucus protects the inner lining of the stomach. Without it, the lining would be exposed to hydrochloric acid and pepsin. The acid would damage the lining and cause acidity and ulcers.

      1 mark
    4. (c)(a)(ii) No villi in the small intestine: Villi greatly increase the surface area for absorption. Without them, absorption of digested food would be greatly reduced. Most of the food would pass out unabsorbed, and the body would lack nutrients.

      1 mark
    5. (c)(b) OR alternative (marked instead of (c)(a) if chosen) – Emulsification: Bile salts break large fat globules into tiny droplets. This increases the surface area for lipase from pancreatic juice to act on. [1 mark]

    6. (c)(b) Making the medium alkaline: Food coming from the stomach is acidic. Bile neutralises it and makes the medium alkaline, which pancreatic enzymes need in order to work. So bile has no enzyme but is still important for digestion. [1 mark]

    Answer: (a) Salivary glands; act on starch. (b) Stomach and anus. (c)(a) (i) Acid would damage the stomach lining (ulcers); (ii) absorption of digested food would be greatly reduced. (c)(b) Bile emulsifies fats and makes the acidic food alkaline for pancreatic enzymes to act

    Where the marks are

    • Salivary glands; starch / carbohydrate (½ + ½ marks)
    • Stomach and anus (½ + ½ marks)
    • (c)(i) Stomach lining not protected from acid (1 mark)
    • (c)(ii) Digested food not absorbed / absorption area reduced (1 mark)
    • OR (c) Emulsification of fats (1 mark); makes the medium alkaline for pancreatic enzymes (1 mark)

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  3. Q39 · 4 marks · Case-basedCompetency-basedElectricity

    In a domestic circuit five LED bulbs are arranged as shown. The source voltage is 220 V and the power rating of each bulb is marked in the circuit diagram. Based on the following circuit diagram, answer the following questions :

    1. (a)

      State what happens when (i) key is closed. (ii) key is closed.

      1 mark
    2. (b)

      Find the current drawn by the bulb B when it glows.

      1 mark
    3. (c)

      Calculate (i) the resistance of bulb B, and (ii) total resistance of the combination of four bulbs B, C, D and E.

      2 marks
    4. OR

      (c)

      What would happen to the glow of all the bulbs in the circuit when keys and both are closed and the bulb C suddenly get fused ? Give reason to justify your answer.

      2 marks

    Figure in the paper: Circuit with a battery (cell stack) on the left, an ammeter at the top, bulb A (22 W, 220 V) on the upper branch, keys K1 and K2 at the top right, and four bulbs B, C, D, E (each 11 W; 55 V) connected in a branch along the bottom in parallel to the lower line. See it in the official paper.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. (a)(i) **Key closed: The branch containing bulb A is completed, so bulb A glows**.

      ½ mark
    2. (a)(ii) **Key closed: The branch containing the series combination of bulbs B, C, D and E is completed, so bulbs B, C, D and E glow**.

      ½ mark
    3. (b) Formula: For bulb B, power W and voltage V. Use .

      ½ mark
    4. (b) Current drawn by B:

      ½ mark
    5. (c)(a)(i) Resistance of bulb B:

      Check: .

      1 mark
    6. (c)(a)(ii) Total resistance of B, C, D, E: The four identical bulbs are in series, so their resistances add:

      Check: A, which is the rated current of each bulb.

      1 mark
    7. (c)(b) OR alternative (marked instead of (c)(a) if chosen) – Bulb A: It keeps glowing with the same brightness. [½ mark]

    8. (c)(b) Bulbs B, D and E: They stop glowing. [½ mark]

    9. (c)(b) Reason: B, D and E are in series with C. When C fuses, that branch becomes an open circuit, so no current flows through B, D or E. Bulb A is on a separate parallel branch. It still gets the full 220 V and the same current, so it is not affected. [1 mark]

    Answer: (a) (i) Bulb A glows; (ii) bulbs B, C, D, E glow. (b) 0.2 A. (c)(a) (i) 275 Ω, (ii) 1100 Ω. (c)(b) A glows with the same brightness; B, D, E stop glowing, because they are in series with fused C, while A is on a parallel branch

    Where the marks are

    • (a)(i) Bulb A glows (½ mark)
    • (a)(ii) Bulbs B, C, D, E glow (½ mark)
    • (b) Uses P = VI (½ mark) and gets I = 0.2 A (½ mark)
    • (c)(i) R = 275 Ω using V/I or V²/P (1 mark)
    • (c)(ii) Series total = 4 × 275 = 1100 Ω (1 mark)
    • OR (c) A keeps glowing with the same brightness (½ mark); B, D, E stop glowing (½ mark); reason based on series/parallel connection (1 mark)

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Source: official question paper, cbse.gov.in. Chapter tags and solutions are ours. Spotted a transcription error? Write tosupport@questionbuddy.in.