CBSE Class 10 Science: sample paper 2023-24
The sample question paper CBSE published for the 2023-24 session, as printed: 39 questions for 80 marks, in sections, with each OR choice shown as an alternative. Try each question first, then open our solution.
Every question here has our step-by-step solution, split into the steps that earn marks. Each one was checked by an independent re-solve from the question paper.
Source: official sample question paper from cbseacademic.nic.in: https://cbseacademic.nic.in/web_material/SQP/ClassX_2023_24/Science-SQP.pdf. Questions are transcribed from that PDF; figures are described in words, so check the official paper for them.
How the paper is set
| Section | Questions | What it has |
|---|---|---|
| A | 1-20 | MCQ 1-16, assertion-reason 17-20 |
| B | 21-26 | Very short answer, 30 to 50 words |
| C | 27-33 | Short answer, 50 to 80 words; questions 31-33 are split into sub-parts with marks 1+1+1, 2+1 and 2+1 |
| D | 34-36 | Long answer, 80 to 120 words; 35 and 36 have sub-parts |
| E | 37-39 | Source/case-based with sub-parts; internal choice in one sub-part of each |
Instructions in brief: All questions are compulsory with internal choice in some questions; attempt only one alternative of an 'OR' pair. Section A has 20 objective-type questions of 1 mark each with no negative marking.
Section A
MCQ 1-16, assertion-reason 17-20
Q1 · 1 mark · MCQChemical Reactions and Equations
Identify the product which represents the solid state in the above reaction.
- (A)Barium chloride
- (B)Barium sulphate
- (C)Sodium chloride
- (D)Sodium sulphate
Figure in the paper: A test tube containing sodium sulphate solution is being poured into a test tube containing barium chloride solution, held by hand. Labels: 'Test tube containing solution of sodium sulphate' (upper pouring tube) and 'Test tube containing solution of barium chloride' (lower tube). See it in the official paper.
Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
The reaction is a double displacement reaction:
- 1 mark
Barium sulphate does not dissolve in water. It separates out as a white precipitate, which is the solid state. Sodium chloride stays dissolved. So the answer is option (B) Barium sulphate.
Answer: Barium sulphate, option (B)
Where the marks are
- Identifies barium sulphate as the insoluble precipitate (solid) (1 mark)
Q2 · 1 mark · MCQMetals and Non-metals
The colour of the solution observed after 30 minutes of placing zinc metal to copper sulphate solution is
- (A)Blue
- (B)Colourless
- (C)Dirty green
- (D)Reddish Brown
Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
Zinc is more reactive than copper, so it displaces copper:
- 1 mark
The blue is used up and colourless forms. The solution becomes colourless, so the answer is option (B).
Answer: Colourless, option (B)
Where the marks are
- Recognises that zinc sulphate solution formed is colourless (1 mark)
Q3 · 1 mark · MCQAcids, Bases and Salts
Mild non-corrosive basic salt is
- (A)
- (B)
- (C)
- (D)
Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
and are bases, not salts, and is corrosive. is a neutral salt.
- 1 mark
Sodium hydrogencarbonate, (baking soda), is a mild, non-corrosive basic salt. It is used in antacids. So the answer is option (D).
Answer: , option (D)
Where the marks are
- Chooses baking soda as the mild non-corrosive basic salt (1 mark)
Q4 · 1 mark · MCQMetals and Non-metals
On adding dilute sulphuric acid to a test tube containing a metal 'X', a colourless gas is produced when a burning match stick is brought near it. Which of the following correctly represents metal 'X'?
- (A)Sodium
- (B)Sulphur
- (C)Copper
- (D)Silver
Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
A colourless gas that burns with a pop near a burning match stick is hydrogen. Hydrogen forms when a metal above hydrogen in the reactivity series reacts with a dilute acid.
- 1 mark
Sulphur is a non-metal. Copper and silver lie below hydrogen and do not give . Sodium does: . So the answer is option (A).
Answer: Sodium, option (A)
Where the marks are
- Identifies sodium as the metal that liberates hydrogen with dilute acid (1 mark)
Q5 · 1 mark · MCQMetals and Non-metals
Which one of the following correctly represents Sodium oxide?
- (A) (electron-dot structure, as drawn)
- (B) (electron-dot structure, as drawn)
- (C) (electron-dot structure, as drawn)
- (D) (electron-dot structure, as drawn)
Figure in the paper: Four electron-dot (Lewis) structure options drawn as handwritten notation. Option a: Na with +2 charge, coefficient 2, oxide ion in brackets with -2 charge. Option b: 2Na+ with oxide ion in brackets with -2 charge. Option c: 2Na+ with coefficient 2 and oxide ion in brackets with -1 charge. Option d: Na with +1 charge and oxide ion in brackets with -2 charge. Each oxide ion is shown with 8 cross-marked electrons around O. See it in the official paper.
Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
Na (2,8,1) loses 1 electron to form . O (2,6) gains 2 electrons to form with an octet.
- 1 mark
To balance the charge, two ions combine with one ion, giving . This is written , which is option (B).
Answer: , option (B)
Where the marks are
- Selects the structure with two ions and one oxide ion of charge (1 mark)
Q6 · 1 mark · MCQMetals and Non-metals
An element with atomic number_____ will form a basic oxide.
- (A)7 (2,5)
- (B)17 (2,8,7)
- (C)14 (2,8,4)
- (D)11 (2,8,1)
Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
Metals form basic oxides. A metal has few valence electrons (1 to 3) and loses them easily.
- 1 mark
The configuration 2,8,1 (atomic number 11) is sodium, a metal, which forms the basic oxide . The other options are non-metals (N, Cl, Si). So the answer is option (D).
Answer: 11 (2,8,1), option (D)
Where the marks are
- Identifies the metal (2,8,1) as forming a basic oxide (1 mark)
Q7 · 1 mark · MCQMetals and Non-metals
An element 'M' has 50% of the electrons filled in the 3rd shell as in the 2nd shell. The atomic number of 'M' is:
- (A)10
- (B)12
- (C)14
- (D)18
Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
The 2nd shell holds 8 electrons. 50% of 8 is 4, so the 3rd shell has 4 electrons.
- 1 mark
The configuration is 2,8,4, so the atomic number is . The answer is option (C).
Answer: 14, option (C)
Where the marks are
- Works out the configuration 2,8,4 and atomic number 14 (1 mark)
Q8 · 1 mark · MCQLife Processes
Generally food is broken and absorbed within the body of organisms. In which of the following organisms is it done outside the body?
- (A)Amoeba
- (B)Mushroom
- (C)Paramoecium
- (D)Lice
Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
Saprophytes such as fungi release digestive enzymes onto their food. The food is broken down outside the body and then absorbed.
- 1 mark
Mushroom is a saprophytic fungus. Amoeba and Paramoecium digest food inside food vacuoles, and lice are parasites that suck blood. So the answer is option (B).
Answer: Mushroom, option (B)
Where the marks are
- Identifies mushroom (saprophytic nutrition) (1 mark)
Q9 · 1 mark · MCQControl and Coordination
Receptors are usually located in sense organs. Gustatory receptors are present in
- (A)tongue
- (B)nose
- (C)eye
- (D)ear
Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
Gustatory receptors detect taste.
- 1 mark
Taste is sensed by the tongue. The nose has olfactory receptors for smell. So the answer is option (A).
Answer: tongue, option (A)
Where the marks are
- States gustatory (taste) receptors are in the tongue (1 mark)
Q10 · 1 mark · MCQCompetency-basedHow do Organisms Reproduce?
A farmer wants to grow banana plants genetically similar enough to the plants already available in his field. Which one of the following methods would you suggest for this purpose?
- (A)Regeneration
- (B)Budding
- (C)Vegetative propagation
- (D)Sexual reproduction
Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
Plants raised by vegetative propagation come from parts of one parent plant. They are therefore genetically similar to the parent.
- 1 mark
Banana is commonly propagated vegetatively, because cultivated bananas have no viable seeds. So the answer is option (C) Vegetative propagation.
Answer: Vegetative propagation, option (C)
Where the marks are
- Selects vegetative propagation as giving genetically similar plants (1 mark)
Q11 · 1 mark · MCQHeredity
Height of a plant is regulated by:
- (A)DNA which is directly influenced by growth hormone.
- (B)Genes which regulate the proteins directly.
- (C)Growth hormones under the influence of the enzymes coded by a gene.
- (D)Growth hormones directly under the influence a gene.
Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
A gene codes for a protein, often an enzyme.
- 1 mark
That enzyme controls how much growth hormone is made, and the amount of hormone decides the height of the plant. So the answer is option (C).
Answer: Option (C)
Where the marks are
- Recognises the gene → enzyme → growth hormone → height sequence (1 mark)
Q12 · 1 mark · MCQCompetency-basedLife Processes
A sportsman, after a long break of his routine exercise, suffered muscular cramps during a heavy exercise session. This happened due to:
- (A)lack of carbon dioxide and formation of pyruvate.
- (B)presence of oxygen and formation of ethanol.
- (C)lack of oxygen and formation of lactic acid.
- (D)lack of oxygen and formation of carbon dioxide.
Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
During heavy exercise, the oxygen supply to muscles falls short of demand.
- 1 mark
The muscles then respire anaerobically, and pyruvate is changed into lactic acid. Lactic acid builds up and causes cramps. So the answer is option (C).
Answer: Option (C)
Where the marks are
- Links cramps to lack of oxygen and lactic acid formation (1 mark)
Q13 · 1 mark · MCQLight – Reflection and Refraction
An object is placed in front of a convex mirror. Its image is formed:
- (A)at a distance equal to the object distance in front of the mirror.
- (B)at twice the distance of the object in front of the mirror.
- (C)half the distance of the object in front of the mirror.
- (D)behind the mirror and it's position varies according to the object distance.
Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
A convex mirror always forms a virtual, erect and diminished image behind the mirror, between the pole P and the focus F.
- 1 mark
As the object moves closer, the image moves from F towards P. Its position therefore depends on the object distance, so the answer is option (D).
Answer: Option (D)
Where the marks are
- States the image is virtual, behind the mirror, and its position changes with object distance (1 mark)
Q14 · 1 mark · MCQThe Human Eye and the Colourful World
When light enters the atmosphere it strikes on extremely fine particles, which deflect the rays of light in all possible directions. This is due to -
- (A)reflection of light
- (B)atmospheric refraction
- (C)scattering of light
- (D)dispersion of light
Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
When very fine particles in the atmosphere send light off in all directions, the effect is called scattering.
- 1 mark
This is the reason for the blue colour of the sky and the Tyndall effect. So the answer is option (C).
Answer: Scattering of light, option (C)
Where the marks are
- Identifies scattering of light (1 mark)
Q15 · 1 mark · MCQOur Environment
In 1987, an agreement was formulated by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) to freeze the production of "X" to prevent depletion of "Y". "X" and "Y" respectively referred here are:
- (A)Ozone; CFCs
- (B)CFCs; rays UV
- (C)CFCs; Ozone
- (D)UV rays; Diatomic oxygen
Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
In 1987, UNEP agreed to freeze CFC production at 1986 levels.
- 1 mark
CFCs deplete the ozone layer, so X = CFCs and Y = Ozone. The answer is option (C).
Answer: CFCs; Ozone, option (C)
Where the marks are
- X = CFCs, Y = ozone (1 mark)
Q16 · 1 mark · MCQOur Environment
Which of the following features relates to biodegradable substances?
- (A)Broken down by biological processes
- (B)Remain inert
- (C)Persist in environment for long time
- (D)May harm the ecosystem
Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
Biodegradable substances are broken down by microorganisms such as bacteria and fungi.
- 1 mark
Remaining inert, persisting for a long time and harming the ecosystem are features of non-biodegradable substances. So the answer is option (A).
Answer: Broken down by biological processes, option (A)
Where the marks are
- Defines biodegradable as broken down by biological processes (1 mark)
Q17 · 1 mark · Assertion-reasonCompetency-basedChemical Reactions and Equations
Assertion: Rusting of Iron is endothermic in nature.
Reason: As the reaction is slow, the release of heat is barely evident.- (A)Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
- (B)Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
- (C)A is true but R is false.
- (D)A is false but R is true.
Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
Assertion: Rusting of iron is an oxidation that releases heat. It is exothermic, so the Assertion is false.
- 1 mark
Reason: Rusting is very slow, so the heat given out is barely noticeable. The Reason is true. A is false and R is true, so the answer is option (D).
Answer: Option (D)
Where the marks are
- Recognises rusting is exothermic (A false) and R true (1 mark)
Q18 · 1 mark · Assertion-reasonCompetency-basedHow do Organisms Reproduce?
Assertion: Probability of survival of an organism produced through sexual reproduction is more than that of organism produced through asexual mode.
Reason: Variations provide advantages to individuals for survival.- (A)Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
- (B)Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
- (C)A is true but R is false.
- (D)A is false but R is true.
Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
Sexual reproduction produces variations, so the offspring have a better chance of surviving in a changing environment. The Assertion is true.
- 1 mark
Variations help some individuals survive, which is exactly why survival is higher. Both are true and R explains A, so the answer is option (A).
Answer: Option (A)
Where the marks are
- Both true and R correctly explains A (1 mark)
Q19 · 1 mark · Assertion-reasonCompetency-basedMagnetic Effects of Electric Current
Assertion: A compass needle is placed near a current carrying wire. The deflection of the compass needle decreases when the magnitude of the current in the wire is increased.
Reason: The strength of a magnetic field at a point near the conductor increases on increasing the current.- (A)Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
- (B)Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
- (C)A is true but R is false.
- (D)A is false but R is true.
Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
Reason: The magnetic field near a conductor gets stronger when the current increases. The Reason is true.
- 1 mark
A stronger field deflects the needle more, so the deflection increases. The Assertion is false, and the answer is option (D).
Answer: Option (D)
Where the marks are
- States deflection increases with current (A false), R true (1 mark)
Q20 · 1 mark · Assertion-reasonCompetency-basedOur Environment
Assertion: Biodegradable substances result in the formation of compost and natural replenishment.
Reason: It is due to breakdown of complex inorganic substances into simple organic substances.- (A)Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
- (B)Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
- (C)A is true but R is false.
- (D)A is false but R is true.
Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
Decomposers break down biodegradable waste into compost and return nutrients to the soil. The Assertion is true.
- 1 mark
Decomposers break complex organic substances into simple inorganic substances, not the other way round. The Reason is false, so the answer is option (C).
Answer: Option (C)
Where the marks are
- A true; R false because the breakdown is organic → inorganic (1 mark)
Section B
Very short answer, 30 to 50 words
Q21 · 2 marks · Very short answerChemical Reactions and Equations
Dil. HCl is added to Zn granules. How will you prove that chemical change has taken place here? Support your response with two arguments.
Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
Reaction: . A new substance forms, so a chemical change takes place. Two observations prove this:
- 1 mark
Argument 1: Bubbles of a gas appear (evolution of gas). The gas is hydrogen, which burns with a pop sound.
- 1 mark
Argument 2: The test tube becomes warm, showing a change in temperature (heat is released). The zinc granules may also turn from silvery grey to dark.
Answer: Evolution of hydrogen gas (bubbles) and change in temperature (or change in colour of Zn)
Where the marks are
- Evolution of gas/bubbles as evidence (1 mark)
- Change in temperature or change in colour of zinc as second evidence (1 mark)
Q22 · 2 marks · Very short answerHow do Organisms Reproduce?
State the post-fertilisation changes that lead to fruit formation in plants.
Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
- ½ mark
After fertilisation, the zygote divides many times and develops into an embryo inside the ovule.
- ½ mark
The ovule forms a tough seed coat and slowly turns into a seed.
- ½ mark
The ovary enlarges and ripens to become the fruit.
- ½ mark
The sepals, petals, stamens, style and stigma usually wither and fall off.
Answer: Zygote → embryo; ovule → seed; ovary → fruit; other floral parts shrivel and fall
Where the marks are
- Zygote develops into embryo (0.5 mark)
- Ovule becomes seed (0.5 mark)
- Ovary ripens into fruit (0.5 mark)
- Other floral parts wither and drop (0.5 mark)
Answer one of these 2 alternatives.
Q23(a) · 2 marks · Very short answerLife Processes
What is the purpose of making urine in the human body? Name the organs that stores and releases the urine.
Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
- ½ mark
Purpose: Urine is made to remove nitrogenous wastes such as urea and uric acid,
- ½ mark
which are filtered out of the blood by the kidneys.
- ½ mark
Organ that stores urine: urinary bladder.
- ½ mark
Organ through which urine is released: urethra.
Answer: To filter nitrogenous wastes (urea, uric acid) from blood; stored in urinary bladder; released through urethra
Where the marks are
- Mentions nitrogenous waste (urea/uric acid) (0.5 mark)
- Filtered from blood (0.5 mark)
- Urinary bladder stores urine (0.5 mark)
- Urethra releases urine (0.5 mark)
OR
Q23(b) · 2 marks · Very short answerLife Processes
Why do arteries have thick and elastic walls whereas veins have valves?
Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
- 1 mark
Arteries carry blood away from the heart, and this blood is under high pressure. They need thick, elastic walls to withstand and adjust to this pressure.
- 1 mark
Veins carry blood at low pressure back to the heart. They have valves that stop the blood flowing backwards, so it moves in one direction only.
Answer: Arteries: thick elastic walls to bear high blood pressure; veins: valves to keep low-pressure blood flowing one way
Where the marks are
- Arteries carry high-pressure blood from heart, hence thick elastic walls (1 mark)
- Valves in veins ensure one-way flow and prevent backflow (1 mark)
Q24 · 2 marks · Very short answerCompetency-basedLight – Reflection and Refraction
The refractive indices of three media are given below:
Medium Refractive Index A 1.6 B 1.8 C 1.5 A ray of light is travelling from A to B and another ray is travelling from B to C.
(a) In which of the two cases the refracted ray bends towards the normal?
(b) In which case does the speed of light increase in the second medium?
Give reasons for your answer.Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
- ½ mark
(a) A ray bends towards the normal when it goes from an optically rarer medium (lower refractive index) into an optically denser medium (higher refractive index).
- ½ mark
For A → B: and , so . B is denser than A. The ray going from A to B bends towards the normal. (For B → C, , so that ray bends away from the normal.)
- ½ mark
(b) Speed of light in a medium: . So the smaller the refractive index, the greater the speed of light.
- ½ mark
For B → C: , so . The speed of light increases when the ray goes from B to C.
Answer: (a) Ray from A to B bends towards the normal, since . (b) Speed increases for the ray from B to C, since and .
Where the marks are
- States that a ray going from rarer to denser medium bends towards the normal (0.5 mark)
- Identifies A → B as the case, using (0.5 mark)
- Uses , so speed is larger where n is smaller (0.5 mark)
- Identifies B → C as the case where speed increases, using (0.5 mark)
Answer one of these 2 alternatives.
Q25(a) · 2 marks · Very short answerElectricity
A piece of wire of resistance R is cut into three equal parts. These parts are then connected in parallel. If the equivalent resistance of this parallel combination is , what is the value of the ratio ?
Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
- ½ mark
Resistance is directly proportional to length (). Each of the three equal parts therefore has resistance .
- 1 mark
For three resistors in parallel:
- ½ mark
So , which gives , i.e. .
Answer:
Where the marks are
- Each part has resistance , because resistance is proportional to length (0.5 mark)
- Correct parallel formula giving (1 mark)
- Final ratio (0.5 mark)
OR
Q25(b) · 2 marks · Very short answerCompetency-basedMagnetic Effects of Electric Current
Refer to the image below and state how the magnetic field pattern indicates regions where the magnetic field is stronger outside the magnet? What happens to the magnetic field when the current in the circuit is reversed?
Figure in the paper: A battery and a variable resistor (rheostat, with arrow) are connected in series to a solenoid. Magnetic field lines are drawn around and through the solenoid, closer together near the ends of the solenoid and spreading out at the sides. Labels: 'solenoid' pointing to the coil and 'magnetic field line' pointing to an outer loop. See it in the official paper.
Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
- ½ mark
Where the magnetic field lines are closer together (crowded), the magnetic field is stronger.
- ½ mark
Outside the solenoid, the lines are most crowded near its ends (the poles). So the field is strongest near the ends, and it becomes weaker further away, where the lines spread out.
- 1 mark
When the current in the circuit is reversed, the direction of the magnetic field also reverses. The two ends of the solenoid swap their N and S polarities, and the field lines point the opposite way.
Answer: The field is stronger where the lines are crowded, i.e. near the ends (poles) of the solenoid. Reversing the current reverses the direction of the magnetic field (poles interchange).
Where the marks are
- Crowded field lines indicate a stronger field (0.5 mark)
- Field is strongest near the ends/poles and weakens away from them (0.5 mark)
- Reversing the current reverses the field direction (1 mark)
Q26 · 2 marks · Very short answerCompetency-basedOur Environment
Study the food chain given below and answer the questions that follow:
- (a)1 mark
If the amount of energy available at the third trophic level is 100 joules, then how much energy will be available at the producer level? Justify your answer.
- (b)1 mark
Is it possible to have 2 more trophic levels in this food chain just before the fourth trophic level? Justify your answer.
Figure in the paper: A food chain shown with pictures in order: Leaf → Caterpillar → Chameleon → Snake → Mongoose (the arrow from Snake points to Mongoose, and the arrow from Mongoose points back toward Snake as printed, drawn as a cycle-like layout with Mongoose on the left side of the lower row). See it in the official paper.
Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
(a) The trophic levels are: Leaf (producer, 1st), Caterpillar (2nd), Chameleon (3rd), Snake (4th), Mongoose (5th). By the 10% law, only about 10% of the energy at one level passes to the next level.
- 1 mark
So the energy at the 2nd level is J, and at the producer level it is J. Energy at producer level = 10000 J, because only 10% of the energy is transferred to each next trophic level.
- 1 mark
(b) No. At each step about 90% of the energy is lost, mostly as heat. If two more levels were added before the fourth level, so little usable energy would remain that the higher levels could not be supported. That is why food chains usually have only 3–4 (rarely 5) trophic levels.
Answer: (a) 10000 J (10% law); (b) No, so much energy is lost at each step that too little usable energy would remain for the extra levels.
Where the marks are
- Gives 10000 J at the producer level with the 10% law as the reason (1 mark)
- Says 'No' and explains that energy loss at each step leaves too little usable energy (1 mark)
Section C
Short answer, 50 to 80 words; questions 31-33 are split into sub-parts with marks 1+1+1, 2+1 and 2+1
Q27 · 3 marks · Short answerMetals and Non-metals
The given reaction shows one of the processes to extract the metals like Iron and Manganese.
- (a)1 mark
Give reason why the above reaction is known as a thermite reaction.
- (b)1 mark
Identify the substance oxidised and reduced in the above reaction.
- (c)1 mark
Give a reason why Aluminium is preferably used in thermite reactions.
Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
Balanced equation:
- 1 mark
(a) The reaction is highly exothermic. So much heat is given out that the metal (Mn/Fe) is produced in the molten (liquid) state. That is why it is called a thermite reaction.
- ½ mark
(b) Al gains oxygen to form , so the substance oxidised is Al(s).
- ½ mark
loses oxygen to form Mn, so the **substance reduced is (s)**.
- 1 mark
(c) Aluminium is more reactive than Fe and Mn (it is placed above them in the reactivity series). It can therefore displace them from their oxides, acting as a strong reducing agent and releasing a lot of heat.
Answer: (a) Highly exothermic reaction; the metal is obtained in molten state. (b) Oxidised: Al; Reduced: . (c) Al is more reactive than Fe/Mn.
Where the marks are
- Thermite because the reaction is highly exothermic / the metal forms in molten state (1 mark)
- Al is the substance oxidised (0.5 mark)
- is the substance reduced (0.5 mark)
- Al is above Fe/Mn in the reactivity series, i.e. more reactive (1 mark)
Answer one of these 2 alternatives.
Q28(a) · 3 marks · Short answerMetals and Non-metals
An element 'M' with electronic configuration 2 8 3 combines separately with , anions. Write the chemical formulae of the compounds formed. Predict with the suitable reason the nature of the bond formed by element 'M' in general. How will the electrical conductivity of the compounds formed vary with respect to 'M'?
Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
- 1 mark
M (2, 8, 3) has 3 valence electrons, so its valency is 3 and it forms . Formulae of the compounds: with it forms ; with it forms .
- 1 mark
Nature of bond: ionic. M is a metal that easily loses its 3 valence electrons to form the cation. It then attains the stable configuration of neon (2, 8), and the cation is held to the anions by electrostatic attraction.
- 1 mark
Conductivity: M, a metal, conducts electricity in the solid state. Its ionic compounds do not conduct in the solid state, because the ions are fixed in the crystal. They do conduct in the molten state or in aqueous solution, where the ions are free to move.
Answer: and ; ionic bond (M loses 3 electrons to attain the neon configuration); the compounds conduct only when molten/dissolved, unlike M, which conducts in the solid state.
Where the marks are
- Correct formulae and (1 mark)
- Ionic bond, with the reason that M loses 3 electrons to get the stable (2, 8) configuration (1 mark)
- Compounds conduct in molten/aqueous state but not in solid state, unlike metal M (1 mark)
OR
Q28(b) · 3 marks · Short answerMetals and Non-metals
A reddish-brown metal 'X', when heated in air, gives a black compound 'Y', which when heated in presence of gas gives 'X' back. 'X' is refined by the process of electrolysis; this refined form of 'X' is used in electrical wiring.
Identify 'X' and 'Y'. Draw a well-labeled diagram to represent the process of refining 'X'.Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
- 1 mark
X is a reddish-brown metal used in electrical wiring, so X = Copper (Cu). On heating in air: , so Y = Copper(II) oxide, CuO (black). With hydrogen: .
- 1½ marks
Diagram of electrolytic refining of copper (to be drawn and labelled): a tank containing acidified copper sulphate solution (electrolyte). A thick block of impure copper is the anode, connected to the positive terminal of the battery. A thin strip of pure copper is the cathode, connected to the negative terminal. A battery and a key complete the circuit. Show ions moving towards the cathode, and anode mud (impurities) collecting at the bottom below the anode.
- ½ mark
Working: at the anode, . At the cathode, , so pure copper is deposited on the cathode. Insoluble impurities settle as anode mud.
Answer: X = Copper (Cu), Y = Copper(II) oxide (CuO); refining by electrolysis with an impure Cu anode, a pure Cu cathode and acidified electrolyte.
Where the marks are
- Identifies X as Cu and Y as CuO (1 mark)
- Diagram with correct labels: impure Cu anode (+), pure Cu cathode (−), acidified solution, anode mud, battery/key (2 marks)
Q29 · 3 marks · Short answerCompetency-basedControl and Coordination
We are advised to take iodised salt in our diet by doctors. Justify it's importance in our body.
Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
- 1 mark
Iodine is needed by the thyroid gland to make the hormone thyroxin. Iodised salt is an easy way to get enough iodine in the daily diet.
- 1 mark
Thyroxin regulates carbohydrate, protein and fat metabolism in the body.
- 1 mark
Thyroxin provides the best balance for growth of the body. If iodine is lacking, too little thyroxin is made and the person may suffer from goitre (swollen neck). That is why doctors advise iodised salt.
Answer: Iodine is needed to make thyroxin, which regulates carbohydrate, protein and fat metabolism and balances growth; its deficiency causes goitre.
Where the marks are
- Iodine is essential for synthesis of thyroxin by the thyroid (1 mark)
- Thyroxin regulates carbohydrate, protein and fat metabolism (1 mark)
- Thyroxin balances growth / deficiency causes goitre (1 mark)
Q30 · 3 marks · Short answerHeredity
What is the probability of a girl or a boy being born in a family? Justify your answer.
Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
- 1 mark
The probability of a girl or a boy being born is equal: 50% each (1 in 2).
- ½ mark
Humans have 23 pairs of chromosomes: 22 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of sex chromosomes. Women have a perfect pair of sex chromosomes: XX.
- ½ mark
Men have a mismatched pair: one normal-sized X and one short Y, i.e. XY. So half the sperms carry X and half carry Y.
- ½ mark
Every egg from the mother carries an X chromosome, so the child always gets X from the mother.
- ½ mark
If the child gets X from the father, it is XX, a girl. If it gets Y from the father, it is XY, a boy. Both kinds of sperm are equally likely to fertilise the egg, so the chance is 50 : 50.
Answer: 50% chance of a girl and 50% chance of a boy; sex is decided by whether the father's sperm carries X or Y.
Where the marks are
- States equal (50%) probability of a girl and a boy (1 mark)
- Females have XX sex chromosomes (0.5 mark)
- Males have XY sex chromosomes (0.5 mark)
- Mother always passes on an X chromosome (0.5 mark)
- X from father gives a girl, Y from father gives a boy (0.5 mark)
Q31 · 3 marks · Short answerLight – Reflection and Refraction
Answer the following.
- (i)1 mark
Explain why the refractive index of any material with respect to air is always greater 1.
- (ii)1 mark
In the figure below a light ray travels from air into the semi-circular plastic block. Give a reason why the ray does not deviate at the semi-circular boundary of the plastic block.
- (iii)1 mark
Complete the ray diagram of the above scenario when the light ray comes out of the plastic block from the top flat end.
Figure in the paper: A semi-circular plastic block with its flat top face (labelled 'plastic block') and a dashed 'normal' drawn perpendicular to the flat top at the point of incidence. A light ray (labelled 'light ray') enters from below-left into the curved bottom surface, travelling toward the centre, making an angle of 40° with the normal. See it in the official paper.
Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
- ½ mark
(i) Refractive index of a medium with respect to air:
- ½ mark
Light travels slower in any material medium than in air, so the denominator is always smaller than the numerator. Hence .
- 1 mark
(ii) The ray travels towards the centre of the semicircle, i.e. along a radius. A radius is normal to the curved surface, so the ray strikes the curved boundary along the normal (angle of incidence ). A ray falling normally on a surface passes through undeviated.
- ½ mark
(iii) Ray diagram: at the flat top face, the ray meets the surface at the centre with angle of incidence inside the plastic. It goes from the denser medium (plastic) into the rarer medium (air), so it bends away from the normal. Draw the emergent ray in air on the opposite side of the normal (upper right), with angle of refraction .
- ½ mark
Mark arrows on the incident, internal and emergent rays to show the direction of travel, and label the normal, and ().
Answer: (i) and light is slower in any medium, so n > 1; (ii) the ray moves along a radius, so it strikes the curved surface normally and is undeviated; (iii) at the flat face the ray emerges into air bending away from the normal ().
Where the marks are
- Writes n as speed in air / speed in medium (0.5 mark)
- Speed in medium is less, so n > 1 (0.5 mark)
- Ray is along the radius, i.e. normal incidence on the curved surface, so no deviation (1 mark)
- Emergent ray drawn bending away from the normal (0.5 mark)
- Correct arrows on the rays (0.5 mark)
Q32 · 3 marks · Short answerElectricity
Answer the following.
- (i)2 marks
State the law that explains the heating effect of current with respect to the measurable properties in an electrical circuit.
- (ii)1 mark
List the factors on which the resistance of a conductor depends.
Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
- ½ mark
(i) The law is Joule's law of heating.
- 1 mark
It states that the heat H produced in a resistor is directly proportional to: (a) the square of the current through it, ; (b) its resistance, ; (c) the time for which the current flows, .
- ½ mark
Combining these: (H in joules, I in amperes, R in ohms, t in seconds).
- 1 mark
(ii) The resistance of a conductor depends on: its length (); its area of cross-section (); the nature of its material (resistivity); and its temperature.
Answer: (i) Joule's law of heating: , i.e. heat ∝ , ∝ R, ∝ t. (ii) Length, area of cross-section, nature of material, temperature.
Where the marks are
- Names Joule's law of heating (0.5 mark)
- States H ∝ , H ∝ R, H ∝ t, or writes (1.5 marks)
- Lists any two factors affecting resistance (0.5 + 0.5 marks)
Q33 · 3 marks · Short answerCompetency-basedElectricity
Anannya responded to the question: Why do electrical appliances with metallic bodies are connected to the mains through a three pin plug, whereas an electric bulb can be connected with a two pin plug?
She wrote: Three pin connections reduce heating of connecting wires.
- (i)2 marks
Is her answer correct or incorrect? Justify.
- (ii)1 mark
What is the function of a fuse in a domestic circuit?
Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
- 1 mark
(i) Anannya's answer is incorrect. A three-pin connection does not reduce heating of the connecting wires.
- 1 mark
The third pin connects the metallic body of the appliance to the earth wire. If current leaks to the metal body, the earth wire gives it a low-resistance path to the ground. This keeps the body at earth potential, so the user does not get a severe electric shock. An electric bulb has no metallic body that a user touches, so a two-pin plug is enough.
- 1 mark
(ii) A fuse is a safety device connected in series in the circuit. It protects the circuit and appliances from overloading and short-circuiting. When excess current flows, its wire (of low melting point) melts and breaks the circuit.
Answer: (i) Incorrect: the third pin provides earthing, a low-resistance path for leakage current that protects the user from shock. (ii) A fuse melts and breaks the circuit when excess current flows, protecting the circuit and appliances.
Where the marks are
- States that the answer is incorrect (1 mark)
- Explains that the earth wire gives a low-resistance path for leakage current from the metal body (1 mark)
- Function of fuse: melts on excess current and breaks the circuit (1 mark)
Section D
Long answer, 80 to 120 words; 35 and 36 have sub-parts
Answer one of these 2 alternatives.
Q34(a) · 5 marks · Long answerCarbon and its Compounds
Answer the following.
- (a)2 marks
Rehmat classified the reaction between Methane and Chlorine in presence of sunlight as a substitution reaction. Support Rehmat's view with suitable justification and illustrate the reaction with the help of a balanced chemical equation.
- (b)3 marks
Chlorine gas was prepared using electrolysis of brine solution. Write the chemical equation to represent the change. Identify the other products formed in the process and give one application of each.
Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
- 1 mark
(a) Rehmat is correct. In this reaction a hydrogen atom of methane is replaced by a chlorine atom. A reaction in which one atom or group is replaced by another is a substitution reaction. Saturated hydrocarbons like methane react this way in sunlight.
- 1 mark
Balanced equation: (further substitution can give , and ).
- 1 mark
(b) Electrolysis of brine (chlor-alkali process): . Chlorine is released at the anode and hydrogen at the cathode.
- 1 mark
Other products: sodium hydroxide (NaOH), formed near the cathode, and **hydrogen gas ()**, released at the cathode.
- 1 mark
Uses (any one each): NaOH is used to make soaps and detergents (also for degreasing metals, paper making, artificial fibres). is used as a fuel (also to hydrogenate oils into margarine, and to make ammonia for fertilisers).
Answer: (a) Substitution: an H of methane is replaced by Cl; . (b) ; other products NaOH (soaps/detergents) and (fuel/margarine/ammonia).
Where the marks are
- Justifies substitution: H atom of methane replaced by Cl (1 mark)
- Balanced equation in sunlight (1 mark)
- Balanced equation for electrolysis of brine (1 mark)
- Identifies NaOH and as the other products (1 mark)
- One correct use each of NaOH and (0.5 + 0.5 marks)
OR
Q34(b) · 5 marks · Long answerCarbon and its Compounds
Raina while doing certain reactions observed that heating of substance 'X' with vinegar like smell with a substance 'Y' (which is used as an industrial solvent) in presence of conc. Sulphuric acid on a water bath gives a sweet-smelling liquid 'Z' having molecular formula . When heated with caustic soda (), 'Z' gives back the sodium salt of and the compound 'Y'.
Identify 'X', 'Y', and 'Z'. Illustrate the changes with the help of suitable chemical equations.
Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
- 1 mark
Identifying X: X has a vinegar-like smell. Vinegar is a dilute (5–8%) solution of ethanoic acid, so X is **ethanoic acid (acetic acid), **.
- 1 mark
Identifying Y: Y is used as an industrial solvent and reacts with an acid to give an ester, so Y is an alcohol: **ethanol (ethyl alcohol), **.
- 1 mark
Identifying Z: A sweet-smelling liquid formed from an acid and an alcohol is an ester. With formula , Z is **ethyl ethanoate, **. Check: carbons , hydrogens , oxygens .
- 1 mark
Formation of Z (esterification):
The acid (X) and the alcohol (Y) give the ester (Z). Conc. acts as the catalyst. - 1 mark
Action of caustic soda on Z (saponification):
The ester gives back sodium ethanoate (the sodium salt of X) and ethanol (Y).
Answer: X = ethanoic acid (); Y = ethanol (); Z = ethyl ethanoate (). Esterification: (conc. ). Saponification: .
Where the marks are
- Identifies X as ethanoic acid (1 mark)
- Identifies Y as ethanol (1 mark)
- Identifies Z as ethyl ethanoate (ester) (1 mark)
- Correct esterification equation with conc. (1 mark)
- Correct equation for hydrolysis of the ester by NaOH giving sodium ethanoate and ethanol (1 mark)
Answer one of these 2 alternatives.
Q35(a) · 5 marks · Long answerCompetency-basedHow do Organisms Reproduce?
Given below are certain situations. Analyze and describe its possible impact on a person:
- (a)1 mark
Testes of a male boy are not able to descend into scrotum during his embryonic development.
- (b)1 mark
Vas deferens of a man is plugged.
- (c)1 mark
Prostate and seminal vesicles are not functional.
- (d)1 mark
Egg is not fertilised in a human female.
- (e)1 mark
Placenta does not attach to the uterus optimally.
Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
- 1 mark
(a) Testes do not descend into the scrotum: Sperm formation needs a temperature slightly lower than normal body temperature. The scrotum keeps the testes outside the body cavity for this reason. If the testes stay inside the abdomen, they are at body temperature, so sperm formation is badly affected. The person may be infertile.
- 1 mark
(b) Vas deferens plugged: The vas deferens carries sperms from the testis towards the urethra. If it is blocked, sperms cannot be carried out and will not be present in the semen. The man cannot fertilise an egg. This is the basis of vasectomy, a surgical method of contraception.
- 1 mark
(c) Prostate and seminal vesicles not functional: These glands add their secretions to the sperms. The secretions provide nourishment and a fluid medium in which sperms can move and be transported. Without them, sperms will be poorly nourished and will not be transported easily, so fertility is reduced.
- 1 mark
(d) Egg not fertilised: The unfertilised egg survives for about one day. The thick, blood-rich lining of the uterus is then not needed. It breaks down and comes out through the vagina as blood and mucus along with the egg. This is menstruation, which occurs roughly every month.
- 1 mark
(e) Placenta not attached to the uterus properly: The placenta passes glucose and oxygen from the mother's blood to the embryo and removes the embryo's wastes. Poor attachment means the embryo gets too little nutrition and oxygen. Its growth and development are affected, which may even cause serious complications such as loss of the pregnancy.
Answer: (a) Sperm formation affected because the testes are at body temperature. (b) Sperms cannot be transported, so no sperms in semen. (c) No secretions for nourishment and transport of sperms. (d) Uterine lining breaks down and menstruation occurs. (e) Embryo gets less nutrition and oxygen, so its growth is affected.
Where the marks are
- States sperm formation is affected because it needs a temperature lower than body temperature (1 mark)
- States sperms cannot be transferred further when the vas deferens is blocked (1 mark)
- States sperms will lack the secretions that give nourishment and a medium for transport (1 mark)
- Explains that the uterine lining breaks down, leading to menstruation (1 mark)
- States the embryo will not get proper nutrition and oxygen, affecting its growth (1 mark)
OR
Q35(b) · 5 marks · Long answerCompetency-basedControl and Coordination
Answer the following.
- (a)3 marks
A doctor has advised Sameer to reduce sugar intake in his diet and do regular exercise after checking his blood test reports. Which disease do you think Sameer is suffering from? Name the hormone responsible for this disease and the organ producing the hormone.
- (b)2 marks
Which hormone is present in the areas of rapid cell division in a plant and which hormone inhibits the growth?
Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
- 1 mark
(a) The doctor asked Sameer to cut down sugar and exercise. This means his blood sugar level is high, so Sameer is suffering from diabetes (diabetes mellitus).
- 1 mark
(a) The hormone involved is insulin. Insulin lowers blood sugar. When it is secreted in too little amount, the blood sugar level rises.
- 1 mark
(a) Insulin is produced by the pancreas.
- 1 mark
(b) Cytokinins are present in greater concentration in areas of rapid cell division, such as fruits and seeds, and they promote cell division.
- 1 mark
(b) Abscisic acid inhibits growth. It also causes effects such as wilting of leaves.
Answer: (a) Diabetes; hormone: insulin; organ: pancreas. (b) Cytokinins in areas of rapid cell division; abscisic acid inhibits growth.
Where the marks are
- Names the disease as diabetes (1 mark)
- Names insulin as the hormone (1 mark)
- Names pancreas as the organ secreting it (1 mark)
- Names cytokinins (1 mark)
- Names abscisic acid as the growth inhibitor (1 mark)
Answer one of these 2 alternatives.
Q36(a) · 5 marks · Long answerLight – Reflection and Refraction
The above image shows a thin lens of focal length 5 m.
- (i)1 mark
What is the kind of lens shown in the above figure?
- (ii)2 marks
If a real inverted image is to be formed by this lens at a distance of 7 m from the optical centre, then show with calculation where should the object be placed?
- (iii)2 marks
Draw a neatly labelled diagram of the image formation mentioned in (ii).
Figure in the paper: A thin convex (double convex) lens drawn on a horizontal principal axis, with two focal points marked on the axis on either side of the lens: F2 on the left and F1 on the right, labelled 'principal axis'. See it in the official paper.
Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
- 1 mark
(i) The lens in the figure is thicker at the middle than at the edges. It has focal points on both sides of the principal axis. It is a convex (converging) lens.
- ½ mark
(ii) Use the lens formula with the New Cartesian sign convention.
For a convex lens . A real image forms on the other side of the lens, so .
- ½ mark
Substituting:
- ½ mark
- ½ mark
The object must be placed 17.5 m from the optical centre, on the left side (the side opposite to the image). Since m, the object is beyond .
- 1 mark
(iii) Ray diagram (described): Draw the principal axis and the convex lens with , on the right and , on the left. Place object AB upright at 17.5 m on the left, beyond .
- Ray 1 from A, parallel to the principal axis, refracts and passes through .
- Ray 2 from A passes through the optical centre O without deviation.
- 1 mark
The two refracted rays meet at A′ below the axis, between and (at 7 m). Draw A′B′ perpendicular to the axis. The image is real, inverted and diminished. Show arrows on all rays.
Answer: (i) Convex lens. (ii) m: object 17.5 m on the left of the lens (beyond ). (iii) Ray diagram with object beyond and a real, inverted, diminished image between and .
Where the marks are
- Identifies the lens as convex (1 mark)
- Writes the lens formula with correct signs m, m (0.5 mark)
- Substitutes correctly (0.5 mark)
- Obtains (0.5 mark)
- Gets m and states the object position (0.5 mark)
- Ray diagram: object beyond , two correct rays (1 mark)
- Arrows shown and real inverted image correctly located (1 mark)
OR
Q36(b) · 5 marks · Long answerLight – Reflection and Refraction
A 10 cm long pencil is placed 5 cm in front of a concave mirror having a radius of curvature of 40 cm.
- (i)2 marks
Determine the position of the image formed by this mirror.
- (ii)1 mark
What is the size of the image?
- (iii)2 marks
Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of the image as mentioned in the part (i).
Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
- ½ mark
(i) Given cm, so cm. For a concave mirror cm. Object distance cm and object height cm.
- ½ mark
Mirror formula: , so
- ½ mark
- ½ mark
cm. The positive sign means the image is 6.67 cm behind the mirror, so it is virtual and erect.
- 1 mark
(ii) Magnification .
Image size cm. The image is erect and enlarged.
- 1 mark
(iii) Ray diagram (described): Draw the concave mirror with pole P, focus F (20 cm) and centre of curvature C (40 cm) on the principal axis. Place the pencil AB upright at 5 cm, between P and F.
- Ray 1 from A, parallel to the axis, reflects and passes through F.
- Ray 2 from A, directed as if coming from C (along the normal), reflects back along itself.
- 1 mark
The reflected rays diverge. Extend them backwards (dotted lines) behind the mirror; they meet at A′. Draw A′B′ behind the mirror. The image is virtual, erect and enlarged. Show arrows on all rays.
Answer: (i) cm, i.e. 6.67 cm behind the mirror (virtual, erect). (ii) , image size cm (enlarged, erect). (iii) Ray diagram with object between P and F and a virtual image behind the mirror.
Where the marks are
- Takes cm and cm (0.5 mark)
- Writes the mirror formula and substitutes (0.5 mark)
- Obtains (0.5 mark)
- States cm, behind the mirror (0.5 mark)
- Finds and image size cm (1 mark)
- Ray diagram: object between P and F, two correct rays (1 mark)
- Arrows, dotted extensions and virtual erect image behind the mirror (1 mark)
Section E
Source/case-based with sub-parts; internal choice in one sub-part of each
Q37 · 4 marks · Case-basedCompetency-basedCarbon and its Compounds
The table given below shows the hints given by the quiz master in a quiz.
S.NO HINT (i) Substance 'C' is used as a preservative. (ii) 'C' has two carbon atoms; 'C' is obtained by the reaction of 'A' in presence of alkaline Potassium permanganate followed by acidification. (iii) Misuse of 'A' in industries is prevented by adding Methanol, Benzene, and pyridine to 'A'. (iv) 'F' is formed on heating 'A' in presence of conc Sulphuric acid. (v) 'F' reacts with Hydrogen gas in presence of Nickel and Palladium catalyst. Based on the above hints answer the following questions.
- (a)1 mark
Give the IUPAC names of A and F.
- (b)3 marks
Illustrate with the help of chemical equations the changes taking place. ( and )
- (b)3 marks
Name the chemical reactions which occur in steps 2 and 5. Identify the compounds formed in these steps if 'A' is replaced with its next homologue.
Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
Reasoning from the hints: C has two carbon atoms and is used as a preservative (in pickles), so C is ethanoic acid. A is oxidised to C, and A is denatured with methanol, benzene and pyridine to stop its misuse, so A is ethanol. Heating A with conc. dehydrates it to F, which takes up hydrogen, so F is an alkene, ethene.
- 1 mark
(a) IUPAC names: A = ethanol (); F = ethene ().
- 1½ marks
(b) (oxidation):
Ethanol is oxidised to ethanoate in the alkaline medium. Acidification gives ethanoic acid (C). - 1½ marks
(b) (dehydration):
Conc. acts as a dehydrating agent. - 1 mark
(b) Alternative, part 1: Step 2 (ethanol to ethanoic acid) is an oxidation reaction. Step 5 (ethene + with Ni/Pd catalyst) is an addition reaction (hydrogenation).
- 1 mark
(b) Alternative, part 2: The next homologue of ethanol is propanol, .
- Step 2: gives propanoic acid.
- 1 mark
- Step 5: propanol dehydrates (step 4) to propene, . Hydrogenation then gives propane:
Answer: (a) A = ethanol, F = ethene. (b) (alk. , then ); (hot conc. ). OR (b): step 2 oxidation, step 5 addition (hydrogenation). With propanol, step 2 gives propanoic acid; propanol gives propene, which is hydrogenated in step 5 to propane.
Where the marks are
- Names A as ethanol and F as ethene (1 mark)
- Correct equation for oxidation of ethanol to ethanoic acid using alkaline followed by acidification (1.5 marks)
- Correct equation for dehydration of ethanol to ethene with hot conc. (1.5 marks)
- OR: names step 2 as oxidation and step 5 as addition/hydrogenation (1 mark)
- OR: identifies the compounds for the next homologue, propanol: propanoic acid in step 2 (1 mark)
- OR: propene, hydrogenated to propane in step 5 (1 mark)
Q38 · 4 marks · Case-basedCompetency-basedHeredity
Figures (a) to (d) given below represent the type of ear lobes present in a family consisting of 2 children – Rahul, Nisha and their parents. Figure labels: a) Rahul's Father, b) Rahul, c) Rahul's Mother, d) Rahul's sister Nisha. Figures (e) and (f) show 'Type of ear lobes'.
Excited by his observation of different types of ear lobes present in his family, Rahul conducted a survey of the type of ear lobes found {Figure (e) and (f)} in his classmates. He found two types of ear lobes in his classmates as per the frequency given below:
Sex Free Attached Male 36 14 Female 31 19 On the basis of above data answer the following questions.
- (a)1 mark
Which of the two characteristics - 'free ear lobe' or 'attached ear lobe' appears to be dominant in this case? Why?
- (b)1 mark
Is the inheritance of the free ear lobe linked with sex of the individual? Give reason for your answer.
- (c)2 marks
What type of ear lobe is present in father, mother, Rahul and his sister Nisha? Write the genetic constitution of each of these family members which explains the inheritance of this character in this family? (Gene for Free ear lobe is represented by F and gene for attached ear lobe is represented by f for writing the genetic constitution).
- (c)2 marks
Suresh's parents have attached ear lobes. What type of ear lobe can be seen in Suresh and his sister Siya? Explain by giving the genetic composition of all.
Figure in the paper: Four photographs of ears labelled a) Rahul's Father, b) Rahul, c) Rahul's Mother, d) Rahul's sister Nisha. Below them, two line drawings labelled (e) and (f) under the caption 'Type of ear lobes': (e) shows an ear lobe that hangs free from the side of the head; (f) shows an ear lobe attached directly to the side of the head. See it in the official paper.
Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
- 1 mark
(a) Free ear lobe appears to be dominant. In the survey, of 100 students have free ear lobes and only have attached ones. The trait seen in the large majority is likely to be the dominant one. Also, Rahul has attached lobes although both his parents have free lobes, so attached is recessive.
- 1 mark
(b) No, it is not linked with sex. Free ear lobes occur in both males (36 of 50) and females (31 of 50) in nearly equal proportion. In the family too, both the father and Nisha (female) have free lobes. A sex-linked trait would show a clear bias towards one sex.
(c) From the figures: Father has a free ear lobe, Mother has a free ear lobe, Rahul has an attached ear lobe and Nisha has a free ear lobe.
- 1 mark
Rahul has attached lobes, so his genotype must be ff. He received one f from each parent. Both parents show the dominant free trait, so each must be Ff: Father Ff, Mother Ff.
- 1 mark
Cross gives FF : Ff : ff = 1 : 2 : 1. Nisha has free lobes, so she is Ff (or FF; one F is enough for the free trait). Rahul is ff.
- 1 mark
(c) Alternative (Suresh): Both parents have attached ear lobes (recessive), so each is ff. They can pass on only the f allele. Cross: gives only ff.
- 1 mark
So Suresh is ff and Siya is ff. Both can only have attached ear lobes.
Answer: (a) Free ear lobe is dominant (found in the majority, 67 of 100). (b) No, it is found in both males and females in similar proportion. (c) Father Ff (free), Mother Ff (free), Rahul ff (attached), Nisha Ff (or FF) (free). OR (c): Father ff, Mother ff; Suresh ff and Siya ff, so both have attached ear lobes.
Where the marks are
- Free ear lobe dominant, with reason that it occurs in the majority (1 mark)
- Not sex-linked, with reason that it occurs in both males and females (1 mark)
- Father Ff, free ear lobe (0.5 mark)
- Mother Ff, free ear lobe (0.5 mark)
- Rahul ff, attached ear lobe (0.5 mark)
- Nisha Ff, free ear lobe (0.5 mark)
- OR: parents ff, Suresh and Siya ff, all attached; recessive parents can only have recessive children (2 marks)
Q39 · 4 marks · Case-basedCompetency-basedElectricity
Vinita and Ahmed demonstrated a circuit that operates the two headlights and the two sidelights of a car, in their school exhibition. Based on their demonstrated circuit, answer the following questions.
- (i)(a)1 mark
State what happens when switch A is connected to Position 2.
- (i)(b)1 mark
State what happens when switch A is connected to Position 3.
- (ii)1 mark
Find the potential difference across each lamp when lit.
- (iii)(a)1 mark
Calculate the current in each 12 Ω lamp when lit.
OR
(iii)(b)1 markCalculate the current in each 4 Ω lamp when lit.
OR
(iv)2 marksShow, with calculations, which type of lamp, 4.0 Ω or 12 Ω, has the higher power.
Figure in the paper: Circuit diagram: a 12 V battery connected to a switch A with three positions (1, 2, 3). Position 1 connects directly to the main line feeding the lamps. Position 2 connects to the right-hand branch carrying two lamps of 12 Ω each; Position 3 connects to the middle branch carrying two lamps of 4.0 Ω each. The four lamps (two 4.0 Ω and two 12 Ω) are arranged in parallel between the top and bottom rails, with the two 4.0 Ω lamps on the left and the two 12 Ω lamps on the right. See it in the official paper.
Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
- ½ mark
(i)(a) With switch A at Position 2, only the branch with the two 12 Ω lamps is connected to the battery. Only the two 12 Ω lamps light up; the 4 Ω lamps stay off.
- ½ mark
(i)(b) With switch A at Position 3, only the branch with the two 4 Ω lamps is connected. Only the two 4 Ω lamps light up; the 12 Ω lamps stay off.
- 1 mark
(ii) All the lamps are connected in parallel directly across the 12 V battery. In a parallel connection, every branch gets the full supply voltage. So the potential difference across each lamp = 12 V when lit.
- 1 mark
(iii)(a) Each 12 Ω lamp has V across it. By Ohm's law, .
- 1 mark
(iii)(b) Each 4 Ω lamp has V across it. By Ohm's law, .
- 1½ marks
(iv) (alternative to (iii)) Use . The voltage is the same (12 V) for every lamp because they are in parallel.
- 4 Ω lamp:
- 12 Ω lamp:
- ½ mark
Since , the 4.0 Ω lamps have the higher power.
Answer: (i)(a) Only the 12 Ω lamps light; (i)(b) only the 4 Ω lamps light. (ii) 12 V across each lamp. (iii)(a) 1 A; (iii)(b) 3 A. OR (iv) 4 Ω lamp: 36 W, 12 Ω lamp: 12 W, so the 4 Ω lamp has higher power.
Where the marks are
- States only the 12 Ω lamps light at position 2 (0.5 mark)
- States only the 4 Ω lamps light at position 3 (0.5 mark)
- 12 V across each lamp, with reason that the lamps are in parallel (1 mark)
- Current in each 12 Ω lamp = 1 A using (1 mark)
- Current in each 4 Ω lamp = 3 A using (1 mark)
- OR: uses with the same V for all lamps, gets 36 W and 12 W, and concludes the 4 Ω lamp has higher power (2 marks)
Source: official sample paper, cbseacademic.nic.in. Chapter tags and solutions are ours. Spotted a transcription error? Write tosupport@questionbuddy.in.