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ScienceCBSE Class 10 · Board exam 2023 (session 2022-23)

CBSE Class 10 Science: 2023 board paper, set 31/1/1

The question paper set in the CBSE Class 10 board exam of 2023, as printed: 39 questions for 80 marks, in sections, with each OR choice shown as an alternative. Try each question first, then open our solution.

Every question here has our step-by-step solution, split into the steps that earn marks. Each one was checked by an independent re-solve from the question paper.

Source: official question paper from cbse.gov.in: https://www.cbse.gov.in/cbsenew/question-paper/2023/X/SCIENCE.zip (a zip; this paper is the file 31_1_1_Science.pdf). Questions are transcribed from that PDF; figures are described in words, so check the official paper for them.

How the paper is set

SectionQuestionsWhat it has
A1-20MCQ 1-16, assertion-reason 17-20
B21-26Very short answer, 30-50 words
C27-33Short answer, 50-80 words
D34-36Long answer, 80-120 words
E37-39Case/source based with sub-parts

Instructions in brief: All questions compulsory; no overall choice, but internal choices are provided in some sections.

Section A

MCQ 1-16, assertion-reason 17-20

  1. Q1 · 1 mark · MCQCompetency-basedAcids, Bases and Salts

    In the experimental setup given below, it is observed that on passing the gas produced in the reaction in the solution 'X' the solution 'X' first turns milky and then colourless.

    The option that justifies the above stated observation is that 'X' is aqueous calcium hydroxide and

    1. (A)it turns milky due to carbon dioxide gas liberated in the reaction and after sometime it becomes colourless due to formation of calcium carbonate.
    2. (B)it turns milky due to formation of calcium carbonate and on passing excess of carbon dioxide it becomes colourless due to formation of calcium hydrogen carbonate which is soluble in water.
    3. (C)it turns milky due to passing of carbon dioxide through it. It turns colourless as on further passing carbon dioxide, sodium hydrogen carbonate is formed which is soluble in water.
    4. (D)the carbon dioxide liberated during the reaction turns lime water milky due to formation of calcium hydrogen carbonate and after some time it turns colourless due to formation of calcium carbonate which is soluble in water.

    Figure in the paper: Apparatus: a boiling tube clamped on a stand containing sodium carbonate and dilute hydrochloric acid, closed with a cork fitted with a delivery tube that leads into a test tube (held by hand) containing solution 'X'. Labels: Dilute Hydrochloric Acid, Sodium carbonate, X. See it in the official paper.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. Sodium carbonate reacts with dilute HCl and releases carbon dioxide:

    2. turns lime water milky because insoluble calcium carbonate forms:

    3. With excess , soluble calcium hydrogen carbonate forms and the milkiness disappears: . This matches option (B).

      1 mark

    Answer: Option (B)

    Where the marks are

    • Chooses (B): milky from , colourless from soluble (1 mark)

    Open Q1 on its own page

  2. Q2 · 1 mark · MCQCompetency-basedChemical Reactions and Equations

    The emission of brown fumes in the given experimental set-up is due to

    1. (A)thermal decomposition of lead nitrate which produces brown fumes of nitrogen dioxide.
    2. (B)thermal decomposition of lead nitrate which produces brown fumes of lead oxide.
    3. (C)oxidation of lead nitrate forming lead oxide and nitrogen dioxide.
    4. (D)oxidation of lead nitrate forming lead oxide and oxygen.

    Figure in the paper: A test tube held with tongs, inclined, containing lead nitrate being heated by a burner; brown fumes are emitted from the mouth of the test tube. Labels: Brown fumes, Lead nitrate, Burner. See it in the official paper.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. On heating, lead nitrate breaks down into simpler substances. This is thermal decomposition, not oxidation:

    2. The brown fumes are nitrogen dioxide (). Lead oxide is a yellow solid and oxygen is colourless. So the answer is (A).

      1 mark

    Answer: Option (A)

    Where the marks are

    • Identifies brown fumes as from thermal decomposition, option (A) (1 mark)

    Open Q2 on its own page

  3. Q3 · 1 mark · MCQChemical Reactions and Equations


    In order to balance the above chemical equation, the values of , y and z respectively are :

    1. (A)6, 2, 2
    2. (B)4, 1, 2
    3. (C)4, 2, 1
    4. (D)2, 2, 1
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. Balance O first. There are 2 O on the left, so (). Then there are 4 H on the right, so ().

    2. Cl: there are 4 on the left. On the right, has 2, so must supply the other 2, giving .

    3. Balanced equation: , so , which is option (C).

      1 mark

    Answer: x = 4, y = 2, z = 1; option (C)

    Where the marks are

    • Correct values 4, 2, 1, option (C) (1 mark)

    Open Q3 on its own page

  4. Q4 · 1 mark · MCQCompetency-basedAcids, Bases and Salts

    The table below has information regarding pH and the nature (acidic/basic) of four different solutions. Which one of the options in the table is correct ?

    OptionSolutionColour of pH paperApproximate pH valueNature of solution
    (a)Lemon juiceOrange3Basic
    (b)Milk of magnesiaBlue10Basic
    (c)Gastric juiceRed6Acidic
    (d)Pure waterYellow7Neutral
    1. (A)(a)
    2. (B)(b)
    3. (C)(c)
    4. (D)(d)
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. Check each row:

      • (a) Lemon juice (pH about 2–3) is acidic, not basic.
      • (c) Gastric juice has pH about 1–2, not 6.
      • (d) Pure water (pH 7) turns universal indicator green, not yellow.
    2. Milk of magnesia has pH about 10. It is basic and gives a blue colour on pH paper. So row (b) is correct.

      1 mark

    Answer: Option (B)

    Where the marks are

    • Selects milk of magnesia row, option (B) (1 mark)

    Open Q4 on its own page

  5. Q5 · 1 mark · MCQMetals and Non-metals

    A metal 'X' is used in thermite process. When X is burnt in air it gives an amphoteric oxide 'Y'. 'X' and 'Y' are respectively :

    1. (A)Fe and
    2. (B) and
    3. (C)Fe and
    4. (D) and
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. The thermite process uses aluminium as the reducing agent: . So X = Al.

    2. Aluminium burns to form , an amphoteric oxide. ( is not a real formula.) So the answer is (B).

      1 mark

    Answer: X = Al, Y = Al₂O₃; option (B)

    Where the marks are

    • Identifies Al and , option (B) (1 mark)

    Open Q5 on its own page

  6. Q6 · 1 mark · MCQAcids, Bases and Salts

    Select washing soda from the following :

    1. (A)
    2. (B)
    3. (C)
    4. (D)NaOH
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. Washing soda is sodium carbonate decahydrate, which has 10 molecules of water of crystallisation.

    2. Its formula is , which is option (C). is baking soda and NaOH is caustic soda.

      1 mark

    Answer: Option (C) Na₂CO₃·10H₂O

    Where the marks are

    • Chooses (1 mark)

    Open Q6 on its own page

  7. Q7 · 1 mark · MCQCarbon and its Compounds

    Consider the structures of the three cyclic carbon compounds A, B and C given below and select the correct option from the following :

    1. (A)A and C are isomers of hexane and B is benzene.
    2. (B)A is an isomer of hexane, B is benzene and C is an isomer of hexene.
    3. (C)A is a saturated cyclic hydrocarbon and B and C are unsaturated cyclic hydrocarbons.
    4. (D)A is cyclohexane and B and C are the isomers of benzene.

    Figure in the paper: Three six-membered carbon ring structures with hydrogens. (A) ring with all single bonds, each carbon having two H (cyclohexane). (B) ring with alternating double bonds, each carbon having one H (benzene). (C) ring with two double bonds (one on upper right, one on lower left), the remaining carbons carrying two H each (cyclohexadiene). See it in the official paper.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. A has only C–C single bonds. It is cyclohexane (), a saturated cyclic hydrocarbon.

    2. B (benzene) and C (cyclohexadiene) both contain C=C double bonds, so both are unsaturated. Their formulas are and , so they are not isomers of each other.

    3. So the correct statement is (C).

      1 mark

    Answer: Option (C)

    Where the marks are

    • Identifies A as saturated and B, C as unsaturated, option (C) (1 mark)

    Open Q7 on its own page

  8. Q8 · 1 mark · MCQLife Processes

    An organism which breaks down the food material outside the body and then absorbs it is

    1. (A)a plant parasite, Cuscuta
    2. (B)an animal parasite, Tapeworm
    3. (C)a bacteria, Rhizobium
    4. (D)a fungi, Rhizopus
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. Saprophytes such as fungi release enzymes onto the food, digest it outside the body, and then absorb the simple products.

    2. Rhizopus (bread mould) is a saprophytic fungus. So the answer is (D).

      1 mark

    Answer: Option (D) Rhizopus

    Where the marks are

    • Selects fungus Rhizopus (saprophytic nutrition) (1 mark)

    Open Q8 on its own page

  9. Q9 · 1 mark · MCQLife Processes

    Consider the following statements about small intestine and select the one which is NOT correct :

    1. (A)The length of the small intestine in animals differs as it depends on the type of food they eat.
    2. (B)The small intestine is the site of complete digestion of food.
    3. (C)The small intestine receives secretions from liver and pancreas.
    4. (D)The villi of the small intestine absorb water from the unabsorbed food before it gets removed from the body via the anus.
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. Statements (A), (B) and (C) are true. Herbivores have a longer small intestine than carnivores. Digestion is completed in the small intestine. It receives bile from the liver and pancreatic juice from the pancreas.

    2. Water is absorbed from the unabsorbed food in the large intestine, not by the villi of the small intestine. So (D) is the incorrect statement.

      1 mark

    Answer: Option (D)

    Where the marks are

    • Identifies (D) as incorrect, since water absorption happens in the large intestine (1 mark)

    Open Q9 on its own page

  10. Q10 · 1 mark · MCQHeredity

    The statement that correctly describes the characteristic(s) of a gene is :

    1. (A)In individuals of a given species, a specific gene is located on a particular chromosome.
    2. (B)A gene is not the information source for making proteins in the cell.
    3. (C)Each chromosome has only one gene located all along its length.
    4. (D)All the inherited traits in human beings are not controlled by genes.
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. A gene is a section of DNA that carries the information for making a protein. It occupies a fixed position on a particular chromosome in a species.

    2. Options (B), (C) and (D) contradict this: genes do code for proteins, a chromosome carries many genes, and inherited traits are controlled by genes. So the answer is (A).

      1 mark

    Answer: Option (A)

    Where the marks are

    • Selects (A) (1 mark)

    Open Q10 on its own page

  11. Q11 · 1 mark · MCQControl and Coordination

    Select from the following the correct statement about tropic movement in plants :

    1. (A)It is due to stimulus of touch and temperature.
    2. (B)It does not depend upon the direction of stimulus received.
    3. (C)It is observed only in roots and not in stems.
    4. (D)It is a growth related movement.
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. Tropic movements are directional responses (towards or away from a stimulus such as light, gravity, water or chemicals). They occur in both roots and stems.

    2. These movements happen through unequal growth of the plant part, so they are growth-related. The answer is (D).

      1 mark

    Answer: Option (D)

    Where the marks are

    • Selects growth-related movement (1 mark)

    Open Q11 on its own page

  12. Q12 · 1 mark · MCQHow do Organisms Reproduce?

    Select the INCORRECT match (between the plant and its vegetative part) from the following :

    1. (A)Bryophyllum, leaf
    2. (B)Potato, stem
    3. (C)Money-plant, stem
    4. (D)Rose, root
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. Bryophyllum produces buds on the margins of its leaves. Potato tubers are stems. Money-plant grows from stem cuttings. All three matches are correct.

    2. Rose is propagated by stem cuttings, not roots. So 'Rose, root' is the incorrect match, option (D).

      1 mark

    Answer: Option (D)

    Where the marks are

    • Identifies Rose–root as the incorrect match (1 mark)

    Open Q12 on its own page

  13. Q13 · 1 mark · MCQElectricity

    If four identical resistors, of resistance 8 ohm, are first connected in series so as to give an effective resistance , and then connected in parallel so as to give an effective resistance , then the ratio is

    1. (A)32
    2. (B)2
    3. (C)0.5
    4. (D)16
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. In series:

    2. In parallel: , so

    3. , which is option (D).

      1 mark

    Answer: 16; option (D)

    Where the marks are

    • Computes , , ratio 16 (1 mark)

    Open Q13 on its own page

  14. Q14 · 1 mark · MCQElectricity

    In domestic electric circuits the wiring with 15 A current rating is for the electric devices which have

    1. (A)higher power ratings such as geyser.
    2. (B)lower power ratings such as fan.
    3. (C)metallic bodies and low power ratings.
    4. (D)non-metallic bodies and low power ratings.
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. Domestic wiring has two circuits: 15 A for high-power appliances and 5 A for low-power ones such as fans and bulbs.

    2. A geyser draws a large current, so it is connected to the 15 A line. The answer is (A).

      1 mark

    Answer: Option (A)

    Where the marks are

    • Chooses higher power ratings such as geyser (1 mark)

    Open Q14 on its own page

  15. Q15 · 1 mark · MCQElectricity

    In the following diagram, the position of the needle is shown on the scale of a voltmeter. The least count of the voltmeter and the reading shown by it respectively are :

    1. (A)0.15 V and 1.6 V
    2. (B)0.05 V and 1.6 V
    3. (C)0.15 V and 1.8 V
    4. (D)0.05 V and 1.8 V

    Figure in the paper: Semicircular voltmeter scale from 0 (left) to 3 (right), with 1.5 marked at the top centre. The needle pivots at the centre (labelled V) and points to the right of the 1.5 mark, between divisions. See it in the official paper.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. Least count = (value of one main interval) ÷ (number of small divisions in it). The scale has 10 divisions between 0 and 1.5 V, so LC V.

    2. The needle stands 2 divisions beyond the 1.5 V mark. Reading V. So the answer is (C).

      1 mark

    Answer: LC = 0.15 V, reading = 1.8 V; option (C)

    Where the marks are

    • Finds least count 0.15 V and reading 1.8 V (1 mark)

    Open Q15 on its own page

  16. Q16 · 1 mark · MCQMagnetic Effects of Electric Current

    The resultant magnetic field at point 'P' situated midway between two parallel wires (placed horizontally) each carrying a steady current I is

    1. (A)in the same direction as the current in the wires.
    2. (B)in the vertically upward direction.
    3. (C)zero
    4. (D)in the vertically downward direction.

    Figure in the paper: Two horizontal parallel wires AB (top) and CD (bottom), each with current arrow pointing from left to right (A to B, C to D). Point P lies midway between them. See it in the official paper.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. By the right-hand thumb rule, current from left to right in the top wire AB gives a field at P (below AB) pointing into the page. The same current in the bottom wire CD gives a field at P (above CD) pointing out of the page.

    2. P is equidistant from the two wires and the currents are equal, so the two fields are equal in size and opposite in direction. The resultant field is zero, option (C).

      1 mark

    Answer: Zero; option (C)

    Where the marks are

    • Recognises equal and opposite fields at P, so the resultant is zero (1 mark)

    Open Q16 on its own page

  17. Q17 · 1 mark · Assertion-reasonCompetency-basedMetals and Non-metals

    Assertion (A) : The colour of aqueous solution of copper sulphate turns colourless when a piece of lead is added to it.
    Reason (R) : Lead is more reactive than copper, and hence displaces copper from its salt solution.

    1. (A)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
    2. (B)Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
    3. (C)(A) is true, but (R) is false.
    4. (D)(A) is false, but (R) is true.
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. Lead is above copper in the reactivity series, so it displaces copper: . Reason (R) is true.

    2. Because copper ions are removed from the solution, the blue colour fades. So (A) is true and (R) explains it, option (A).

      1 mark

    Answer: Option (A)

    Where the marks are

    • Both true and R correctly explains A (1 mark)

    Open Q17 on its own page

  18. Q18 · 1 mark · Assertion-reasonCompetency-basedHeredity

    Assertion (A) : Genes inherited from the parents decide the sex of a child.
    Reason (R) : X chromosome in a male child is inherited from his father.

    1. (A)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
    2. (B)Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
    3. (C)(A) is true, but (R) is false.
    4. (D)(A) is false, but (R) is true.
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. Sex is decided by the sex chromosome inherited from the parents: XX gives a girl, XY gives a boy. So (A) is true.

    2. A boy (XY) gets his Y chromosome from his father and his X chromosome from his mother. So (R) is false, and the answer is (C).

      1 mark

    Answer: Option (C)

    Where the marks are

    • A true and R false (1 mark)

    Open Q18 on its own page

  19. Q19 · 1 mark · Assertion-reasonCompetency-basedLife Processes

    Assertion (A) : Blood clotting prevents excessive loss of blood.
    Reason (R) : Blood clotting is due to blood plasma and white blood cells present in the blood.

    1. (A)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
    2. (B)Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
    3. (C)(A) is true, but (R) is false.
    4. (D)(A) is false, but (R) is true.
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. Clotting seals a leak in a blood vessel and prevents excessive blood loss. So (A) is true.

    2. Clotting is brought about by platelets, not by plasma and white blood cells. WBCs fight infection. So (R) is false, and the answer is (C).

      1 mark

    Answer: Option (C)

    Where the marks are

    • A true and R false, since platelets cause clotting (1 mark)

    Open Q19 on its own page

  20. Q20 · 1 mark · Assertion-reasonCompetency-basedMagnetic Effects of Electric Current

    Assertion (A) : The strength of the magnetic field produced at the centre of a current carrying circular coil increases on increasing the number of turns in it.
    Reason (R) : The current in each circular turn has the same direction and the magnetic field due to each turn then just adds up.

    1. (A)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
    2. (B)Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
    3. (C)(A) is true, but (R) is false.
    4. (D)(A) is false, but (R) is true.
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. For a coil of n turns, the field at the centre is n times the field of a single turn. So (A) is true.

    2. This happens because the current flows in the same direction in every turn, so the fields add up. (R) is true and explains (A), option (A).

      1 mark

    Answer: Option (A)

    Where the marks are

    • Both true and R correctly explains A (1 mark)

    Open Q20 on its own page

Section B

Very short answer, 30-50 words

  1. Answer one of these 2 alternatives.

    Q21(a) · 2 marks · Very short answerAcids, Bases and Salts

    Answer the following.

    1. (i)

      A compound 'X' which is prepared from gypsum has the property of hardening when mixed with proper quantity of water.
      Identify 'X' and write its chemical formula.

      0 marks
    2. (ii)

      State the difference in chemical composition between baking soda and baking powder.

      0 marks
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. (i) Gypsum heated to 373 K loses part of its water and forms Plaster of Paris (calcium sulphate hemihydrate). It sets into a hard mass when mixed with water. So X = Plaster of Paris.

      ½ mark
    2. (i) Formula of X:

      ½ mark
    3. (ii) Baking soda is a single compound, sodium hydrogen carbonate, .

      ½ mark
    4. (ii) Baking powder is a mixture of baking soda () and a mild edible acid such as tartaric acid.

      ½ mark

    Answer: (i) X = Plaster of Paris, CaSO₄·½H₂O; (ii) baking soda is NaHCO₃ only, while baking powder is NaHCO₃ + tartaric acid (mild edible acid)

    Where the marks are

    • Names Plaster of Paris (½ mark)
    • Writes (½ mark)
    • Baking soda = (½ mark)
    • Baking powder = + tartaric acid (½ mark)

    Open Q21(a) on its own page

    OR

    Q21(b) · 2 marks · Very short answerChemical Reactions and Equations

    Write balanced chemical equation for the reaction that occurs when :

    1. (i)

      blue coloured copper sulphate crystals are heated and

      0 marks
    2. (ii)

      Sodium hydrogen carbonate is heated during cooking.

      0 marks
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. (i) On heating, the blue crystals lose their water of crystallisation and turn into white anhydrous copper sulphate:

      1 mark
    2. (ii) On heating, baking soda decomposes to sodium carbonate, water and carbon dioxide:

      1 mark

    Answer: (i) CuSO₄·5H₂O → CuSO₄ + 5H₂O; (ii) 2NaHCO₃ → Na₂CO₃ + H₂O + CO₂

    Where the marks are

    • Balanced dehydration equation of blue vitriol (1 mark)
    • Balanced decomposition equation of (1 mark)

    Open Q21(b) on its own page

  2. Q22 · 2 marks · Very short answerControl and Coordination

    Answer the following.

    1. (a)

      Write the role of insulin in regulating blood sugar levels in human body. Mention the disease caused due to it.

      0 marks
    2. (b)

      How is the timing and the amount of release of insulin in the blood regulated ?

      0 marks
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. (a) Insulin, secreted by the pancreas, lowers the blood sugar level by helping body cells take up and use glucose.

      ½ mark
    2. (a) Too little insulin raises the blood sugar level and causes diabetes.

      ½ mark
    3. (b) Insulin release is controlled by a feedback mechanism. When the blood sugar level rises, the pancreas detects it and secretes more insulin. As the sugar level falls, insulin secretion is reduced.

      1 mark

    Answer: (a) Insulin lowers blood sugar; its deficiency causes diabetes; (b) a feedback mechanism: rising sugar increases insulin release and falling sugar reduces it

    Where the marks are

    • States insulin lowers blood sugar (½ mark)
    • Names diabetes (½ mark)
    • Explains feedback mechanism (1 mark)

    Open Q22 on its own page

  3. Answer one of these 2 alternatives.

    Q23(a) · 2 marks · Very short answerLife Processes

    Name the type of blood (oxygenated / deoxygenated) transported by each of the following mentioning the path (i.e. from one organ (which place) to another (which place)).

    1. (i)

      Vena cava

      0 marks
    2. (ii)

      Pulmonary artery

      0 marks
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. (i) Vena cava carries deoxygenated blood.

      ½ mark
    2. (i) Path: from the body organs to the heart (right atrium).

      ½ mark
    3. (ii) Pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood.

      ½ mark
    4. (ii) Path: from the heart (right ventricle) to the lungs, where the blood is oxygenated.

      ½ mark

    Answer: (i) Vena cava: deoxygenated, from body to heart (right atrium); (ii) Pulmonary artery: deoxygenated, from heart (right ventricle) to lungs

    Where the marks are

    • Vena cava – deoxygenated (½ mark)
    • Body → heart (½ mark)
    • Pulmonary artery – deoxygenated (½ mark)
    • Heart → lungs (½ mark)

    Open Q23(a) on its own page

    OR

    Q23(b) · 2 marks · Very short answerLife Processes

    With the help of a schematic flow chart, show the breakdown of glucose in a cell to provide energy –

    1. (i)

      in the presence of oxygen

      0 marks
    2. (ii)

      in lack of oxygen

      0 marks
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. In both cases the first step is the same. In the cytoplasm, glucose (a 6-carbon molecule) breaks down into pyruvate (a 3-carbon molecule) and releases a small amount of energy. This step is called glycolysis.

    2. (i) In the presence of oxygen (aerobic respiration):

      Glucose Pyruvate + Energy Carbon dioxide + Water + Energy

      The breakdown is complete, so a large amount of energy is released.

      1 mark
    3. (ii) In lack of oxygen (in human muscle cells):

      Glucose Pyruvate + Energy Lactic acid + Energy

      Lactic acid builds up in the muscles and causes cramps. Yeast, under anaerobic conditions, gives ethanol + + energy instead.

      1 mark

    Answer: (i) Glucose → (cytoplasm) Pyruvate → (oxygen, mitochondria) CO₂ + H₂O + energy; (ii) Glucose → (cytoplasm) Pyruvate → (lack of oxygen, muscle cells) Lactic acid + energy

    Where the marks are

    • Correct flow chart for aerobic breakdown: glucose → pyruvate in cytoplasm → CO₂ + water + energy in mitochondria (1 mark)
    • Correct flow chart for breakdown in lack of oxygen: glucose → pyruvate → lactic acid + energy in muscle cells (1 mark)

    Open Q23(b) on its own page

  4. Q24 · 2 marks · Very short answerLife Processes

    Name the part of the human excretory system where nephrons are found. Write the structure and function of nephrons.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. Nephrons are found in the kidneys. Each kidney contains a very large number of them.

      ½ mark
    2. Structure of a nephron: It begins as a cup-shaped structure called Bowman's capsule. This capsule holds a cluster of thin-walled blood capillaries called the glomerulus. The capsule continues as a long coiled tubular part, which is surrounded by capillaries. The tubule opens into a collecting duct. (A labelled diagram showing these parts may be drawn instead.)

      1 mark
    3. Function (any one): It filters nitrogenous wastes such as urea out of the blood to form urine. It also reabsorbs useful substances such as glucose, amino acids, salts and water from the filtrate, and helps maintain the water balance of the body (osmoregulation).

      ½ mark

    Answer: Kidneys; a nephron is Bowman's capsule with glomerulus + tubule leading to the collecting duct; it filters wastes from blood to form urine (and reabsorbs useful substances).

    Where the marks are

    • Names kidneys (½ mark)
    • Describes the structure: glomerulus in Bowman's capsule, tubule, collecting duct, or gives a labelled diagram (1 mark)
    • States any one correct function, such as filtration of waste, reabsorption or osmoregulation (½ mark)

    Open Q24 on its own page

  5. Answer one of these 2 alternatives.

    Q25(a) · 2 marks · Very short answerThe Human Eye and the Colourful World

    A narrow beam XY of white light is passing through a glass prism ABC as shown in the diagram :

    Trace it on your answer sheet and show the path of the emergent beam as observed on the screen PQ.
    Name the phenomenon observed and state its cause.

    Figure in the paper: A triangular glass prism ABC with apex A at top and base BC horizontal. A ray XY from the lower left (X) strikes face AB at point Y. A vertical screen PQ stands to the right of the prism, with P at top and Q at bottom. See it in the official paper.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. Ray diagram (described in words):

      • Draw the prism ABC and the incident white ray XY striking face AB at Y.
      • Inside the prism, the ray splits into a fan of seven coloured rays.
      • These rays bend towards the base BC. Red bends the least and violet bends the most.
      • The rays leave through face AC, bending further towards the base.
      • On the screen PQ they form a band of colours. From top (P side) to bottom (Q side) the order is R, O, Y, G, B, I, V: red at the top and violet at the bottom.
      • Arrows should be shown on all rays.
      1 mark
    2. Phenomenon: This is the dispersion of white light, that is, the splitting of white light into its seven component colours (the spectrum).

      ½ mark
    3. Cause: Light of different colours (different wavelengths) travels at different speeds in glass. So each colour bends through a different angle with respect to the incident ray. Red is deviated the least and violet the most.

      ½ mark

    Answer: The beam splits into a spectrum, with red at the top and violet at the bottom on PQ (VIBGYOR read from the bottom up). The phenomenon is dispersion, caused by different colours bending through different angles.

    Where the marks are

    • Correct diagram: splitting inside the prism, red least and violet most deviated, colours labelled on screen PQ (1 mark)
    • Names dispersion of white light (½ mark)
    • Cause: different colours or wavelengths bend through different angles (½ mark)

    Open Q25(a) on its own page

    OR

    Q25(b) · 2 marks · Very short answerCompetency-basedThe Human Eye and the Colourful World

    It is observed that the power of an eye to see nearby objects as well as far off objects diminishes with age.

    1. (i)

      Give reason for the above statement.

      0 marks
    2. (ii)

      Name the defect that is likely to arise in the eyes in such a condition.

      0 marks
    3. (iii)

      Draw a labelled ray diagram to show the type of corrective lens used for restoring the vision of such an eye.

      0 marks
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. (i) Reason: With age, the ciliary muscles gradually become weaker. The eye lens also loses its flexibility. So the eye can no longer change the focal length of its lens properly (its accommodation falls), and both near and far vision suffer.

      1 mark
    2. (ii) Defect: Presbyopia. When the person suffers from both near and far vision problems, this is presbyopia along with myopia.

      ½ mark
    3. (iii) Corrective lens: bifocal lens (diagram described in words):

      • Draw a spectacle lens divided into two halves.
      • Label the upper part concave lens (for distant vision).
      • Label the lower part convex lens (for near vision).
      ½ mark

    Answer: (i) Weakening of the ciliary muscles and reduced flexibility of the eye lens; (ii) presbyopia; (iii) bifocal lens, with a concave upper part for distant vision and a convex lower part for near vision.

    Where the marks are

    • Gradual weakening of the ciliary muscles (½ mark)
    • Reduced flexibility of the eye lens (½ mark)
    • Names presbyopia (½ mark)
    • Bifocal lens diagram with concave upper part and convex lower part, labelled (½ mark)

    Open Q25(b) on its own page

  6. Q26 · 2 marks · Very short answerOur Environment

    How do harmful chemicals get accumulated progressively at each trophic level in a food chain ?

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. Entry into the food chain: Pesticides and other chemicals sprayed on crops are washed into the soil and water bodies. Plants absorb them from the soil along with water and minerals. Animals then eat these plants, so the chemicals enter the food chain.

      1 mark
    2. Progressive accumulation: These chemicals are non-biodegradable, so they are neither broken down nor excreted. At every step, each organism eats many organisms of the lower trophic level. The chemical therefore keeps building up, and its concentration increases at each successive trophic level. It is highest in the top consumers, such as humans. This is called biological magnification.

      1 mark

    Answer: Non-biodegradable chemicals from crops pass from the soil to plants and then to animals. Because they cannot be broken down, their concentration builds up at each trophic level. This is biological magnification.

    Where the marks are

    • Explains how chemicals enter the food chain via soil, water and plants (1 mark)
    • Non-biodegradable chemicals accumulate at each successive trophic level, called biomagnification (1 mark)

    Open Q26 on its own page

Section C

Short answer, 50-80 words

  1. Q27 · 3 marks · Short answerChemical Reactions and Equations

    Answer the following.

    1. (a)

      Identify the reducing agent in the following reactions :
      (i)
      (ii)
      (iii)
      (iv)

      0 marks
    2. (b)

      Define a redox reaction in terms of gain or loss of oxygen.

      0 marks
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. (a) A reducing agent is the substance that gets oxidised: it gains oxygen or loses hydrogen.

    2. (a)(i) In , loses hydrogen and gains oxygen to form NO. **Reducing agent: **.

      ½ mark
    3. (a)(ii) In , gains hydrogen (it is reduced), so is the one giving up hydrogen. **Reducing agent: **.

      ½ mark
    4. (a)(iii) In , CO gains oxygen to become . Reducing agent: CO.

      ½ mark
    5. (a)(iv) In , gains oxygen. **Reducing agent: **.

      ½ mark
    6. (b) A redox reaction is one in which one substance gains oxygen (is oxidised) while another substance loses oxygen (is reduced), both at the same time.

      1 mark

    Answer: (a) (i) NH₃, (ii) H₂O, (iii) CO, (iv) H₂; (b) a reaction in which gain of oxygen by one substance and loss of oxygen by another occur simultaneously.

    Where the marks are

    • NH₃ (½ mark)
    • H₂O (½ mark)
    • CO (½ mark)
    • H₂ (½ mark)
    • Defines redox as simultaneous gain and loss of oxygen (1 mark)

    Open Q27 on its own page

  2. Q28 · 3 marks · Short answerCompetency-basedAcids, Bases and Salts

    Answer the following.

    1. (a)

      Suggest one remedial measure each to counteract the change in pH in human beings in following cases :
      (i) Production of too much acid in stomach during indigestion
      (ii) Stung by a honey bee / nettle leaves

      0 marks
    2. (b)

      Fresh milk has a pH of 6. When it changes into curd will its pH increase or decrease ? Why ?

      0 marks
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. (a)(i) Excess acid in the stomach lowers the pH. Taking an antacid, a mild base such as milk of magnesia (magnesium hydroxide), neutralises the excess acid.

      1 mark
    2. (a)(ii) A bee sting or nettle sting injects methanoic acid into the skin. Rubbing on a mild base such as baking soda solution neutralises it and gives relief. For a nettle sting, the leaf of the dock plant can also be rubbed on.

      1 mark
    3. (b) The pH will decrease.

      ½ mark
    4. Reason: when milk sets into curd, bacteria convert lactose into lactic acid. Curd is therefore more acidic than milk, so its pH falls below 6.

      ½ mark

    Answer: (a)(i) Take an antacid (e.g., milk of magnesia); (ii) apply baking soda solution or a mild base (dock leaf for nettle); (b) pH decreases because curd contains lactic acid and is more acidic.

    Where the marks are

    • Use of antacid or mild base (1 mark)
    • Baking soda, a mild base or dock plant for the sting (1 mark)
    • pH decreases (½ mark)
    • Curd is more acidic due to lactic acid (½ mark)

    Open Q28 on its own page

  3. Answer one of these 2 alternatives.

    Q29(a) · 3 marks · Short answerLife Processes

    Answer the following.

    1. (i)

      State the role of ATP in cellular respiration.

      0 marks
    2. (ii)

      What ensures sufficient exchange of gases in plants ?

      0 marks
    3. (iii)

      State the conditions on which the direction of diffusion of gases in plant depend upon.

      0 marks
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. (i) ATP is the energy currency of the cell. The energy released during cellular respiration is stored in ATP. When needed, ATP breaks down and releases a fixed amount of energy. This energy drives energy-requiring (endothermic) reactions in the cell, such as muscle contraction and protein synthesis.

      1 mark
    2. (ii) Plants have stomata in their leaves, and their leaves, stems and roots have a large surface area. Gases diffuse in and out through the stomata and the surfaces of leaves, stems and roots. This ensures sufficient exchange of gases.

      1 mark
    3. (iii) The direction of diffusion of gases depends on:
      1. The environmental conditions, for example, the presence or absence of light.

      ½ mark
    4. 2. The requirements of the plant. In the daytime, photosynthesis uses and releases . At night only respiration occurs, so goes in and comes out.

      ½ mark

    Answer: (i) ATP is the energy currency that supplies energy for cellular processes; (ii) stomata and the large surface area of leaves, stems and roots; (iii) environmental conditions and the requirements of the plant.

    Where the marks are

    • ATP as energy currency driving cell reactions (1 mark)
    • Stomata and the surfaces of leaves, stems and roots (1 mark)
    • Environmental conditions (½ mark)
    • Requirements of the plant (½ mark)

    Open Q29(a) on its own page

    OR

    Q29(b) · 3 marks · Short answerCompetency-basedLife Processes

    Answer the following.

    1. (i)

      What is the internal energy reserve in plants and animals ?

      0 marks
    2. (ii)

      How desert plants perform photosynthesis if their stomata remain closed during the day ?

      0 marks
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. (i) In plants, food is stored as the internal energy reserve starch.

      1 mark
    2. In animals (including humans), the internal energy reserve is glycogen.

      1 mark
    3. (ii) Desert plants keep their stomata open at night and take in . They convert it into an intermediate compound (an acid) and store it. During the day, the stomata stay closed to reduce water loss. Chlorophyll absorbs sunlight, and this energy is used to release from the stored intermediate. This is then used to make carbohydrates.

      1 mark

    Answer: (i) Starch in plants, glycogen in animals; (ii) they take in CO₂ at night and store it as an intermediate, which is used in the day with light energy absorbed by chlorophyll.

    Where the marks are

    • Starch in plants (1 mark)
    • Glycogen in animals (1 mark)
    • CO₂ taken in at night, stored as an intermediate and used in the day with light energy (1 mark)

    Open Q29(b) on its own page

  4. Q30 · 3 marks · Short answerLight – Reflection and Refraction

    Answer the following.

    1. (a)

      Complete the following ray diagram to show the formation of image :

      0 marks
    2. (b)

      Mention the nature, position and size of the image formed in this case.

      0 marks
    3. (c)

      State the sign of the image distance in this case using the Cartesian sign convention.

      0 marks

    Figure in the paper: A convex-type mirror surface (hatched on the right side) with pole P on the principal axis; object AB upright on the axis at left (B on axis, A at top). Points R and C on the axis to the right of P, behind the mirror (R nearer, C farther). Ray 1 goes horizontally from A to the mirror. Ray 2 goes from A to the mirror and its reflected continuation is a dashed line heading toward C. Labelled: Ray 1, Ray 2, A, B, P, R, C, Object. See it in the official paper.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. (a) The mirror is a convex mirror: its reflecting surface faces the object, and F and C lie behind it. The point marked R on the axis is the principal focus F.

      • Ray 1 (parallel to the principal axis) is reflected so that it appears to come from F behind the mirror. Draw it diverging outward, with a dotted line back to F.
      • Ray 2 (directed towards C) strikes the mirror normally, so it is reflected back along the same path.
      • Extend both reflected rays backwards as dotted lines. They meet behind the mirror at A′.
      • Drop a perpendicular from A′ to the axis to get B′. A′B′ is the image. It lies between P and F.
      1 mark
    2. (b) Nature: virtual and erect.

      ½ mark
    3. Position: behind the mirror, between P and F.

      ½ mark
    4. Size: diminished (smaller than the object).

      ½ mark
    5. (c) The image is formed behind the mirror, on the side opposite the object. By the Cartesian sign convention, the image distance is positive.

      ½ mark

    Answer: (a) Image A′B′ is formed behind the mirror between P and F; (b) virtual, erect, behind the mirror between P and F, diminished; (c) positive.

    Where the marks are

    • Completes the ray diagram correctly with reflected rays and image A′B′ located (1 mark)
    • Virtual and erect (½ mark)
    • Position behind the mirror between P and F (½ mark)
    • Diminished (½ mark)
    • Image distance positive (½ mark)

    Open Q30 on its own page

  5. Q31 · 3 marks · Short answerCompetency-basedThe Human Eye and the Colourful World

    Give reasons for the following :

    1. (a)

      Danger signals installed at airports and at the top of tall buildings are of red colour.

      0 marks
    2. (b)

      The sky appears dark to the passengers flying at very high altitudes.

      0 marks
    3. (c)

      The path of a beam of light passing through a colloidal solution is visible.

      0 marks
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. (a) Red light has the longest wavelength among visible colours, so it is scattered the least by fog, smoke and air particles. A red signal therefore keeps its colour and can be seen clearly from a long distance.

      1 mark
    2. (b) At very high altitudes there is almost no atmosphere (air molecules and dust) to scatter sunlight. With no scattered light reaching the eyes, the sky appears dark instead of blue.

      1 mark
    3. (c) The particles in a colloidal solution are large enough to scatter light. The beam is scattered sideways by these particles and reaches our eyes, so its path becomes visible. This is the Tyndall effect.

      1 mark

    Answer: (a) Red has the longest wavelength and is scattered least, so it is visible from far; (b) there is no atmosphere to scatter light at high altitude; (c) colloid particles scatter light (Tyndall effect).

    Where the marks are

    • Red is least scattered (longest wavelength) and is seen from a distance (1 mark)
    • No scattering due to lack of atmosphere at great heights (1 mark)
    • Colloidal particles are big enough to scatter light (1 mark)

    Open Q31 on its own page

  6. Answer one of these 2 alternatives.

    Q32(a) · 3 marks · Short answerMagnetic Effects of Electric Current

    Answer the following.

    1. (i)

      State the rule used to find the force acting on a current carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field.

      0 marks
    2. (ii)

      Given below are three diagrams showing entry of an electron in a magnetic field. Identify the case in which the force will be (1) maximum and (2) minimum respectively. Give reason for your answer.

      0 marks

    Figure in the paper: Three diagrams, each with horizontal parallel magnetic field lines pointing right (labelled Magnetic field). (i) Electron path is vertical, perpendicular to the field, pointing up. (ii) Electron path is inclined obliquely across the field lines. (iii) Electron moves horizontally, parallel to the field, in the same direction. See it in the official paper.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. (i) Fleming's left-hand rule: Stretch the thumb, forefinger and middle (central) finger of the left hand so that they are mutually perpendicular.

      • If the forefinger points in the direction of the magnetic field,
      • and the middle finger points in the direction of the current,
      • then the thumb gives the direction of the force (motion) on the conductor.
      1 mark
    2. (ii)(1) The force is maximum in Fig. (i).

      ½ mark
    3. Reason: the electron moves at right angles (perpendicular) to the magnetic field, and the force is greatest when the motion is perpendicular to the field.

      ½ mark
    4. (ii)(2) The force is minimum (zero) in Fig. (iii).

      ½ mark
    5. Reason: the electron moves along (parallel to) the magnetic field lines, and no force acts when the motion is parallel to the field.

      ½ mark

    Answer: (i) Fleming's left-hand rule; (ii) (1) maximum in Fig. (i), since the motion is perpendicular to the field; (2) minimum (zero) in Fig. (iii), since the motion is parallel to the field.

    Where the marks are

    • Correct statement of Fleming's left-hand rule (1 mark)
    • Identifies Fig. (i) for maximum force (½ mark)
    • Reason: perpendicular to the field (½ mark)
    • Identifies Fig. (iii) for minimum force (½ mark)
    • Reason: parallel to the field (½ mark)

    Open Q32(a) on its own page

    OR

    Q32(b) · 3 marks · Short answerMagnetic Effects of Electric Current

    Answer the following.

    1. (i)

      Draw the pattern of magnetic field lines of
      (1) a current carrying solenoid
      (2) a bar magnet

      0 marks
    2. (ii)

      List two distinguishing features between the two fields.

      0 marks
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. (i)(1) Solenoid (diagram described in words):

      • Draw a coil connected to a battery and a key.
      • Inside the coil, draw straight, parallel, equally spaced field lines, which show a uniform field.
      • Outside, draw closed loops going from one end (N) to the other (S), like those of a bar magnet.
      • Mark arrows going from S to N inside the coil and from N to S outside.
      1 mark
    2. (i)(2) Bar magnet (diagram described in words):

      • Draw closed curves that come out of the N pole and enter the S pole outside the magnet, and run from S to N inside.
      • The lines are crowded near the poles and never cross each other.
      • Mark arrows on the lines.
      1 mark
    3. (ii) Distinguishing features (any two):
      1. The strength of a solenoid's field can be changed by changing the current, but a bar magnet's field strength is fixed.

      ½ mark
    4. 2. The direction of a solenoid's field can be reversed by reversing the current, but a bar magnet's field direction cannot be changed. (Also accepted: a solenoid's field is temporary and exists only while current flows, whereas a bar magnet's field is permanent.)

      ½ mark

    Answer: (i) Field-line patterns of a solenoid (uniform parallel lines inside, bar-magnet-like outside) and of a bar magnet (N to S outside); (ii) a solenoid's field strength and direction can be changed by changing the current and its field is temporary, whereas a bar magnet's field is fixed and permanent.

    Where the marks are

    • Correct field pattern of a solenoid with arrows (1 mark)
    • Correct field pattern of a bar magnet with arrows (1 mark)
    • Any two correct distinguishing features (½ + ½ mark)

    Open Q32(b) on its own page

  7. Answer one of these 2 alternatives.

    Q33(a) · 3 marks · Short answerCompetency-basedOur Environment

    Answer the following.

    1. (i)

      Why does a kitchen garden called an artificial ecosystem while a forest is considered to be a natural ecosystem ?

      0 marks
    2. (ii)

      While designing an artificial ecosystem at home, write any two things to be kept in mind to convert it into a self-sustaining system. Give reason to justify your answer.

      0 marks
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. (i) A kitchen garden is made and maintained by humans: they choose the plants and supply water, manure and care. It cannot sustain itself, so it is an artificial ecosystem. A forest develops and maintains itself naturally, without human help, so it is a self-sustaining natural ecosystem.

      1 mark
    2. (ii) Example: an aquarium. Things to keep in mind:
      1. Supply oxygen, using an aerator or pump, or ensure enough light for the plants.
      2. Add aquatic plants (producers) along with animals (consumers) such as fish, and allow decomposers to be present.

      1 mark
    3. Justification: The oxygen supply is replenished continuously for the organisms to respire. The aquatic plants make food by photosynthesis and serve as food for the animals, while decomposers recycle wastes into nutrients. So all the components needed for energy flow and nutrient cycling are present, and the system becomes self-sustaining.

      1 mark

    Answer: (i) A kitchen garden is man-made and maintained by humans (non-sustainable), while a forest is maintained by nature (self-sustaining); (ii) e.g., an aquarium with a continuous oxygen supply and aquatic plants as producers, so oxygen is replenished and the plants provide food.

    Where the marks are

    • Distinguishes man-made and maintained (kitchen garden) from naturally self-sustaining (forest) (1 mark)
    • Two correct requirements, e.g., oxygen supply and aquatic plants with animals (1 mark)
    • Valid justification: oxygen replenished and plants serve as food (1 mark)

    Open Q33(a) on its own page

    OR

    Q33(b) · 3 marks · Short answerOur Environment

    Answer the following.

    1. (i)

      Construct a food chain of four trophic levels comprising the following :
      Hawk, snake, plants, rat.

      0 marks
    2. (ii)

      20,000 J of energy was transferred by the producers to the organism of second trophic level. Calculate the amount of energy that will be transferred by organisms of the third trophic level to the organisms of the fourth trophic level.

      0 marks
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. (i) Food chain: Plants → Rat → Snake → Hawk. Here plants are the producers, the rat is the primary consumer, the snake is the secondary consumer and the hawk is the tertiary consumer.

      1 mark
    2. (ii) By the 10% law, only about 10% of the energy at one trophic level is passed on to the next level.

      Energy available at the second trophic level (rat) = 20,000 J.

      Energy transferred from the second to the third trophic level (snake) of J.

      1 mark
    3. Energy transferred from the third to the fourth trophic level (hawk) of J.

      So 200 J is transferred by the third trophic level to the fourth.

      1 mark

    Answer: (i) Plants → Rat → Snake → Hawk; (ii) 200 J

    Where the marks are

    • Correct food chain Plants → Rats → Snakes → Hawks (1 mark)
    • Energy reaching the third level = 2000 J using the 10% law (1 mark)
    • Energy transferred to the fourth level = 200 J (1 mark)

    Open Q33(b) on its own page

Section D

Long answer, 80-120 words

  1. Answer one of these 2 alternatives.

    Q34(a) · 5 marks · Long answerCarbon and its Compounds

    A saturated organic compound 'A' belongs to the homologous series of alcohols.
    On heating 'A' with concentrated sulphuric acid at 443 K, it forms an unsaturated compound 'B' with molecular mass 28 u.
    The compound 'B' on addition of one mole of hydrogen in the presence of Nickel, changes to a saturated hydrocarbon 'C'.

    1. (i)

      Identify A, B and C.

      0 marks
    2. (ii)

      Write the chemical equations showing the conversion of A into B.

      0 marks
    3. (iii)

      What happens when compound C undergoes combustion ?

      0 marks
    4. (iv)

      State one industrial application of hydrogenation reaction.

      0 marks
    5. (v)

      Name the products formed when compound A reacts with sodium.

      0 marks
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. (i) B is an unsaturated compound with molecular mass 28 u. For an alkene : . So **B = ethene, **.

      ½ mark
    2. Ethene is formed by dehydration of an alcohol with the same number of carbon atoms. So **A = ethanol (ethyl alcohol), **.

      ½ mark
    3. Adding one mole of (Ni catalyst) to ethene gives a saturated hydrocarbon. So **C = ethane, **: .

      ½ mark
    4. (ii) Dehydration of ethanol with hot concentrated sulphuric acid. The acid acts as a dehydrating agent and removes water:

      1 mark
    5. (iii) Ethane burns in air or oxygen to give carbon dioxide and water. A large amount of heat (and light) is released:

      1 mark
    6. (iv) Hydrogenation is used in industry to convert vegetable oils into vegetable ghee (solid fats), using a nickel catalyst.

      ½ mark
    7. (v) Ethanol reacts with sodium to give sodium ethoxide and hydrogen gas:

      1 mark

    Answer: (i) A = ethanol (CH₃CH₂OH), B = ethene (CH₂=CH₂), C = ethane (C₂H₆); (ii) CH₃CH₂OH → CH₂=CH₂ + H₂O (hot conc. H₂SO₄, 443 K); (iii) CO₂ and H₂O are formed with release of a lot of heat; (iv) converting vegetable oils into vegetable ghee (fats); (v) sodium ethoxide and hydrogen

    Where the marks are

    • Identifies A as ethanol (½ mark)
    • Identifies B as ethene (½ mark)
    • Identifies C as ethane (½ mark)
    • Equation for dehydration of ethanol with conc. H₂SO₄ at 443 K (1 mark)
    • States that CO₂ and water form with release of a large amount of heat; an unbalanced equation is accepted (1 mark)
    • Hydrogenation of vegetable oils to fats/ghee (½ mark)
    • Names sodium ethoxide and hydrogen (1 mark)

    Open Q34(a) on its own page

    OR

    Q34(b) · 5 marks · Long answerCompetency-basedCarbon and its Compounds

    Answer the following.

    1. (i)

      With the help of diagram, show the formation of micelles, when soap is applied on oily dirt.

      0 marks
    2. (ii)

      Take two test tubes X and Y with 10 mL of hard water in each.
      In test tube 'X', add few drops of soap solution and in test tube 'Y' add a few drops of detergent solution. Shake both the test tubes for the same period.
      (1) In which test tube the formation of foam will be more ? Why ?
      (2) In which test tube is a curdy solid formed ? Why ?

      0 marks
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. (i) A soap molecule is a sodium salt of a long-chain carboxylic acid. It has an ionic (hydrophilic) end, , which dissolves in water, and a long hydrocarbon (hydrophobic) tail, which dissolves in oil.

      ½ mark
    2. When soap is applied on oily dirt, the hydrocarbon tails dissolve in the oil droplet. The ionic heads stay outside, facing the water.

      ½ mark
    3. Diagram (described): draw an oil droplet at the centre. Draw many soap molecules arranged radially around it, with zig-zag tails pointing inwards into the droplet and circular heads on the outside. Mark ions around the outside. Label: 'oil droplet', 'hydrophobic tail', 'ionic/hydrophilic head', 'micelle'. This spherical cluster is a micelle.

      ½ mark
    4. The micelles stay in solution as a colloid and do not come together, because their charged surfaces repel each other. When the cloth is rinsed with water, the oily dirt trapped inside the micelles is washed away.

      ½ mark
    5. (ii)(1) More foam forms in test tube Y (detergent).

      ½ mark
    6. Detergents do not form insoluble salts with the calcium and magnesium ions of hard water. So they stay effective in hard water and lather well.

      1 mark
    7. (ii)(2) A curdy solid forms in test tube X (soap).

      ½ mark
    8. Soap reacts with the calcium and magnesium salts in hard water and forms an insoluble precipitate called scum (curdy white solid). So little lather forms.

      1 mark

    Answer: (i) Micelle: hydrocarbon tails dissolve in the oil droplet at the centre and ionic heads face the water outside (diagram); (ii)(1) Test tube Y, because detergents work in hard water; (2) Test tube X, because soap forms insoluble scum with Ca²⁺/Mg²⁺ salts

    Where the marks are

    • Correct labelled diagram of a micelle around an oil droplet, showing hydrophobic tails inward and ionic heads outward, with explanation (2 marks)
    • Test tube Y (½ mark)
    • Reason: detergents are effective in hard water (1 mark)
    • Test tube X (½ mark)
    • Reason: soap forms insoluble scum with calcium/magnesium salts (1 mark)

    Open Q34(b) on its own page

  2. Q35 · 5 marks · Long answerHow do Organisms Reproduce?

    Answer the following.

    1. (a)

      Name the parts of a bisexual flower that are not directly involved in reproduction.

      0 marks
    2. (b)

      Differentiate between self pollination and cross pollination. List any two significance of pollination.

      0 marks
    3. (c)

      What is the fate of ovules and ovary after fertilization in a flower ?

      0 marks
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. (a) The parts of a bisexual flower not directly involved in reproduction are the sepals (calyx)

      ½ mark
    2. and the petals (corolla). Stamens and pistil are the reproductive parts.

      ½ mark
    3. (b) Self-pollination: pollen grains are transferred from the anther to the stigma of the same flower, or of another flower on the same plant.

      1 mark
    4. Cross-pollination: pollen grains are transferred from the anther of a flower on one plant to the stigma of a flower on a different plant of the same species, by agents such as wind, water, insects or birds.

      1 mark
    5. Significance 1: pollination brings the male gamete to the female part, which leads to fertilisation and seed formation.

      ½ mark
    6. Significance 2: cross-pollination brings genetic variation into the offspring. Pollination also stimulates fruit development.

      ½ mark
    7. (c) After fertilisation, the ovules develop into seeds

      ½ mark
    8. and the ovary develops (ripens) into the fruit.

      ½ mark

    Answer: (a) Sepals (calyx) and petals (corolla); (b) Self: pollen to stigma of the same flower or another flower of the same plant; Cross: pollen to stigma of a flower on a different plant; significance: leads to fertilisation and seed formation, brings variation, stimulates fruit formation; (c) Ovules become seeds, ovary becomes fruit

    Where the marks are

    • Sepals/calyx (½ mark)
    • Petals/corolla (½ mark)
    • Correct description of self-pollination (1 mark)
    • Correct description of cross-pollination (1 mark)
    • Any two significances, e.g. seed formation, fruit development, variation, leads to fertilisation (½ + ½ marks)
    • Ovule becomes seed (½ mark)
    • Ovary becomes fruit (½ mark)

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  3. Q36 · 5 marks · Long answerCompetency-basedElectricity

    Answer the following.

    1. (a)

      An electric iron consumes energy at a rate of 880 W when heating is at the maximum rate and 330 W when the heating is at the minimum. If the source voltage is 220 V, calculate the current and resistance in each case.

      0 marks
    2. (b)

      What is heating effect of electric current ?

      0 marks
    3. (c)

      Find an expression for the amount of heat produced when a current passes through a resistor for some time.

      0 marks
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. (a) Maximum heating: , . Using ,

      ½ mark
    2. ½ mark
    3. Using Ohm's law,

      ½ mark
    4. ½ mark
    5. Minimum heating: , , so

      ½ mark
    6. ½ mark
    7. (b) When an electric current flows through a resistor, part of the electrical energy is dissipated as heat. The resistor gets heated. This is called the heating effect of electric current (Joule heating).

      1 mark
    8. (c) Let a current flow through a resistor for time , with potential difference across it. Charge passed: . Work done in moving this charge: . This work appears as heat, so . Putting :

      (This is Joule's law of heating.)

      1 mark

    Answer: (a) Maximum: I = 4 A, R = 55 Ω; Minimum: I = 1.5 A, R ≈ 146.7 Ω; (b) electrical energy dissipated as heat in a resistor; (c) H = I²Rt (= VIt)

    Where the marks are

    • Formula I = P/V for the maximum case (½ mark)
    • I = 4 A (½ mark)
    • Formula R = V/I (½ mark)
    • R = 55 Ω (½ mark)
    • I = 1.5 A for the minimum case (½ mark)
    • R ≈ 146.6–146.7 Ω (½ mark)
    • Explains the heating effect of current (1 mark)
    • Derives/writes H = I²Rt or H = VIt (1 mark)

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Section E

Case/source based with sub-parts

  1. Q37 · 4 marks · Case-basedCompetency-basedMetals and Non-metals

    Almost all metals combine with oxygen to form metal oxides. Metal oxides are generally basic in nature. But some metal oxides show both basic as well as acidic behaviour. Different metals show different reactivities towards oxygen. Some react vigorously while some do not react at all.

    1. (a)

      What happens when copper is heated in air ? (Give the equation of the reaction involved).

      1 mark
    2. (b)

      Why are some metal oxides categorized as amphoteric ? Give one example.

      1 mark
    3. (c)

      Complete the following equations :
      (i)
      (ii)

      2 marks
    4. OR

      (c)

      On burning Sulphur in oxygen a colourless gas is produced.
      (i) Write chemical equation for the reaction.
      (ii) Name the gas formed.
      (iii) State the nature of the gas.
      (iv) What will be the action of this on a dry litmus paper ?

      2 marks
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. (a) When copper is heated in air, it combines with oxygen and forms black copper(II) oxide. The surface turns black:

      1 mark
    2. (b) Some metal oxides are called amphoteric because they react with both acids and bases to give salt and water.

      ½ mark
    3. Example: aluminium oxide, (or zinc oxide, ZnO).

      ½ mark
    4. (c)(a)(i) Sodium oxide dissolves in water and forms sodium hydroxide, an alkali:

      1 mark
    5. (c)(a)(ii) Here aluminium oxide behaves as an acidic oxide and forms sodium aluminate and water:

      1 mark
    6. (c)(b) [alternative choice, 2 marks if attempted instead of (c)(a)] (i) (½ mark)

    7. (c)(b)(ii) The gas is sulphur dioxide (½ mark). (iii) It is acidic in nature, being an oxide of a non-metal (½ mark).

    8. (c)(b)(iv) On dry litmus paper there is no change, because the gas forms an acid (sulphurous acid) only when water is present (½ mark).

    Answer: (a) 2Cu + O₂ → 2CuO (black copper oxide); (b) they react with both acids and bases to form salt and water, e.g. Al₂O₃/ZnO; (c)(a) (i) 2NaOH(aq), (ii) 2NaAlO₂ + H₂O; (c)(b) (i) S + O₂ → SO₂, (ii) sulphur dioxide, (iii) acidic, (iv) no change on dry litmus

    Where the marks are

    • Balanced equation 2Cu + O₂ → 2CuO (1 mark)
    • Reason: reacts with both acids and bases to give salt and water (½ mark)
    • Example Al₂O₃ or ZnO (½ mark)
    • Na₂O + H₂O → 2NaOH (1 mark)
    • Al₂O₃ + 2NaOH → 2NaAlO₂ + H₂O (1 mark)
    • OR (c): S + O₂ → SO₂ (½), sulphur dioxide (½), acidic (½), no change on dry litmus (½) (2 marks)

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  2. Q38 · 4 marks · Case-basedCompetency-basedHeredity

    In order to trace the inheritance of traits Mendel crossed pea plants having one contrasting character or a pair of contrasting characters. When he crossed pea plants having round and yellow seeds with pea plants having wrinkled and green seeds, he observed that no plants with wrinkled and green seeds were obtained in the generation. When the generation pea plants were cross-bred by self-pollination, the generation had seeds with different combinations of shape and colour also.

    1. (a)

      Write any two pairs of contrasting characteristics of pea plant used by Mendel other than those mentioned above.

      1 mark
    2. (b)

      Differentiate between dominant and recessive traits.

      1 mark
    3. (c)

      State the ratio of the combinations observed in the seeds of generation (in the above case). What do you interpret from this result ?

      2 marks
    4. OR

      (c)

      Given below is a cross between a pure violet flowered pea plant (V) and a pure white flowered pea plant (v). Diagrammatically explain what type of progeny is obtained in generation and generation :
      Pure violet flowered plant × Pure white flowered plant.
      (V V) (v v)

      2 marks
    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. (a) Two other pairs of contrasting characters Mendel used: tall vs dwarf plants (height of stem)

      ½ mark
    2. and violet (purple) vs white flowers (flower colour). Inflated vs constricted pods or green vs yellow pods are also accepted.

      ½ mark
    3. (b) Dominant trait: a trait that is expressed even when only one copy of its gene (factor) is present, e.g. Tt shows tallness.

      ½ mark
    4. Recessive trait: a trait that is suppressed when a dominant gene is present. It is expressed only when both copies are recessive, e.g. tt is dwarf.

      ½ mark
    5. (c)(a) In the generation the seeds appear as round-yellow : round-green : wrinkled-yellow : wrinkled-green in the ratio 9 : 3 : 3 : 1.

      1 mark
    6. Interpretation: new combinations (round-green and wrinkled-yellow) appear. This shows that the genes for seed shape and seed colour are inherited independently of each other (law of independent assortment).

      1 mark
    7. (c)(b) [alternative choice, 2 marks if attempted instead of (c)(a)] Parents: VV (pure violet) × vv (pure white). Gametes: V and v (½ mark).

    8. : all Vv, all violet flowered, because V is dominant (½ mark).

    9. Self-pollination of : Vv × Vv. Gametes V, v from each parent (½ mark).

    10. (Punnet square): VV, Vv, Vv, vv. 3 violet : 1 white phenotypically, and genotype ratio 1 VV : 2 Vv : 1 vv (½ mark).

    Answer: (a) Tall/dwarf plants, violet/white flowers (or any other valid pairs); (b) dominant trait shows even with one copy, recessive trait shows only when both copies are recessive; (c)(a) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1, meaning the traits are inherited independently; (c)(b) F₁ all Vv violet; F₂ VV : Vv : vv = 1 : 2 : 1, i.e. 3 violet : 1 white

    Where the marks are

    • Any two valid contrasting pairs (½ + ½ marks)
    • Meaning of dominant trait (½ mark)
    • Meaning of recessive trait (½ mark)
    • Ratio 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (1 mark)
    • Interpretation: traits inherited independently (1 mark)
    • OR (c): correct cross showing parents/gametes, F₁ Vv violet, selfing, F₂ 3 violet : 1 white (½ × 4 = 2 marks)

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  3. Q39 · 4 marks · Case-basedCompetency-basedLight – Reflection and Refraction

    Hold a concave mirror in your hand and direct its reflecting surface towards the sun. Direct the light reflected by the mirror on to a white card-board held close to the mirror. Move the card-board back and forth gradually until you find a bright, sharp spot of light on the board. This spot of light is the image of the sun on the sheet of paper; which is also termed as "Principal Focus" of the concave mirror.

    1. (a)

      List two applications of concave mirror.

      1 mark
    2. (b)

      If the distance between the mirror and the principal focus is 15 cm, find the radius of curvature of the mirror.

      1 mark
    3. (c)

      Draw a ray diagram to show the type of image formed when an object is placed between pole and focus of a concave mirror.

      2 marks
    4. OR

      (c)

      An object 10 cm in size is placed at 100 cm in front of a concave mirror. If its image is formed at the same point where the object is located, find :
      (i) focal length of the mirror, and
      (ii) magnification of the image formed with sign as per Cartesian sign convention.

      2 marks

    Figure in the paper: Concave mirror with parallel rays from the left converging at the principal focus F on the principal axis; pole O on the mirror. Labels: Concave mirror, Principal axis, Principal Focus, F, O. See it in the official paper.

    Try it first, then show our solutionSolution
    1. (a) Applications of a concave mirror: (1) in torches, searchlights and vehicle headlights, to get a strong parallel beam of light;

      ½ mark
    2. (2) as shaving mirrors / dentist's mirrors, to see an enlarged image (also used in solar furnaces).

      ½ mark
    3. (b) Focal length cm. For a spherical mirror,

      ½ mark
    4. cm

      ½ mark
    5. (c)(a) Ray diagram (described): draw a concave mirror with pole P, focus F and centre of curvature C on the principal axis. Place a small object AB between P and F. Ray 1: from A parallel to the principal axis; after reflection it passes through F. Ray 2: from A along the line joining C to A, striking the mirror normally; it reflects back along the same path. Mark arrows on all rays.

      1 mark
    6. The two reflected rays diverge. Extend them backwards with dotted lines; they meet behind the mirror at A′. Draw A′B′ perpendicular to the axis. The image is behind the mirror, virtual, erect and enlarged.

      1 mark
    7. (c)(b) [alternative choice, 2 marks if attempted instead of (c)(a)] (i) cm, cm. The image forms at the object's position, so cm. Mirror formula: (½ mark)

    8. , so cm. (Equivalently, the object is at C, so cm.) (½ mark)

    9. (ii) (½ mark) . The image is real, inverted and the same size (10 cm). (½ mark)

    Answer: (a) e.g. torches/headlights/searchlights and shaving/dentist's mirrors; (b) R = 30 cm; (c)(a) image virtual, erect, enlarged, behind the mirror (ray diagram); (c)(b) (i) f = −50 cm, (ii) m = −1

    Where the marks are

    • Any two correct applications (½ + ½ marks)
    • Uses R = 2f (½ mark)
    • R = 30 cm (½ mark)
    • Correct ray diagram with object between P and F, reflected rays extended to give a virtual, erect, enlarged image behind the mirror; ½ mark deducted if arrows are missing (2 marks)
    • OR (c): mirror formula with signs (½), f = −50 cm (½), m = −v/u (½), m = −1 (½) (2 marks)

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Source: official question paper, cbse.gov.in. Chapter tags and solutions are ours. Spotted a transcription error? Write tosupport@questionbuddy.in.